South Australia
Harbors and Navigation Act 1993
An Act to provide for the administration, development and management of harbors; to provide for safe navigation in South Australian waters; and for other purposes.

Contents
Part 1—Preliminary
1	Short title
3	Objects of this Act
4	Interpretation
5	Crown bound
6	Application of Act
6A	Application of Act to certain vessels
Part 2—Administration
Division 1—Minister
8	Minister to be corporation sole
Division 2—Chief Executive
9	Responsibility of CE
10	Annual report
Division 3—Delegation
11	Delegation
Division 4—Authorised persons
12	Appointment of authorised persons
13	Production of identity card
14	Powers of authorised person
Division 5—Miscellaneous
14A	Matters to be taken into account in relation to specially protected areas
Part 3—Property
Division 1—Vesting of property
15	Property of Crown
Division 2—Acquisition of land
16	Acquisition of land
Division 3—Resumption of land
17	Resumption
Division 4—Care, control and management of property
18	Care, control and management of property
18A	By-laws
Division 5—Dealings with property
19	Power to grant leases and licences over land
Division 6—Rateability of land
20	Rateability of land
Division 7—Damage to property
21	Liability for damage
Part 4—General powers to protect navigation and to restrict use of waters
Division 1—Navigational aids
22	Control of navigational aids
23	Establishment of navigational aids
24	Interference with navigational aids
Division 2—Clearance of wrecks
25	Clearance of wrecks etc
Division 3—Restrictions on use of waters
26	Licences for aquatic activities
27	Restricted areas
Part 5—Harbors and ports
Division 1—Control and management of harbors and ports
28	Control and management of harbors
28A	Power to assign control and management of ports
28B	Port operating agreements
28C	General responsibility of port operator
28D	Variation of port operating agreement
28E	Agreements to be tabled in Parliament
28F	Power to deal with non-compliance
28G	Power to appoint manager
28H	Powers of the manager
Division 2—Port management officers
29	Port management officers
Division 2A—Operational powers
29A	Interpretation
29B	Power of direction
29C	Power to board vessel
Division 3—Harbor improvement work
30	Dredging or other similar work
30A	Development of harbors and maritime facilities
30B	Application of Development Act 1993
Division 4—Harbor charges etc
31	Power to fix charges
31A	Power to waive or reduce charges
31B	Charges in respect of goods
31C	Charges in respect of vessels
31D	Power to prevent use of harbor or port facilities
Part 5A—Pilotage
33	Licensing of pilots
34	Pilotage exemption certificate
35	Compulsory pilotage
36	Duties and immunities of pilots
Part 7—Boat operator's licence etc
46	Vessels to which this Part applies
47	Requirement for boat operator's licence, exemption or permit
47A	Requirements for operators of hire and drive vessels
48	Issue of boat operator's licence or exemption
49	Cancellation of boat operator's licence by court
50	Cancellation of boat operator's licence by CE
Part 8—Hire of vessels
51	Vessels to which this Part applies
52	Obligation to hold licence
52A	Duration and granting of licence
53	Terms and conditions of licence
Part 9—Registration and Australian Builders Plates
Division 1—Registration of vessels
54	Application of Division
55	Registration
Division 4—Australian Builders Plates
64A	Application of Division
64B	Certain vessels not to be sold without Australian Builders Plate affixed etc
64C	General defence
Part 10—Safety
Division 1—Safety generally
65	General requirements
65A	Requirement to have emergency position indicating radio beacon
66	Power to prohibit use etc of unsafe vessel
67	Minister's power to act in an emergency
Division 2—CE may require survey
68	CE may require survey
Division 3—Operation of vessels
69	Careless operation of a vessel
69A	Dangerous operation of a vessel
Division 4—Alcohol and other drugs
70	Alcohol and other drugs
71	Authorised person may require alcotest or breath analysis
72	Authorised person may require drug screening test, oral fluid analysis and blood test
72A	Schedule 1A further regulates blood and oral fluid sample processes
72C	Concentration of alcohol in breath taken to indicate concentration of alcohol in blood
73	Evidence
73A	Breath analysis where drinking occurs after operation of vessel
73B	Oral fluid analysis or blood test where consumption of prescribed drug occurs after operation of vessel
74	Compulsory blood tests of injured persons including water skiers
Part 11—Accidents
75	Casualties to be reported
76	Duty to give assistance and provide particulars
Part 12—Court of Marine Enquiry
Division 1—Constitution of Court
77	Constitution of Court
Division 2—Enquiries into casualties
78	Enquiries into casualties
Division 3—Enquiries into misconduct or incompetence
79	Enquiries into misconduct or incompetence
Division 4—Administrative review
80	Review of administrative decisions
Part 13—Application of Navigation Act 2012 and International Conventions
81	Application of Navigation Act 2012
82	Agreement between the Commonwealth and the State
Part 14—Miscellaneous
83	Exemptions
84	Conduct on board vessels
85	Unlawful use of vessels
87	Evidentiary provision
89	Officers' liability
90	Fees and charges to be paid into separate fund
90AA	Facilities levy
90A	Facilities Fund
91	Regulations and fee notices
Schedule 1—Harbors
1	Harbors to which this Act applies
Schedule 1A—Blood and oral fluid sample processes
Part 1—Preliminary
1	Interpretation
Part 2—Processes relating to blood samples under Part 10 Division 4
2	Blood sample processes generally
4	Police officer to be present when blood sample taken
5	Cost of blood tests under certain sections
6	Provisions relating to medical practitioners etc
Part 3—Processes relating to oral fluid samples under section 72
7	Oral fluid sample processes
Part 4—Other provisions relating to blood or oral fluid samples under Part 10 Division 4
8	Blood or oral fluid sample or results of analysis etc not to be used for other purposes
9	Destruction of blood or oral fluid sample taken under Part 10 Division 4
Schedule 2—Transitional provisions
2	Transitional provisions
3	Vesting of land etc held in name of Minister of Marine
Legislative history

The Parliament of South Australia enacts as follows:
Part 1—Preliminary
1—Short title
This Act may be cited as the Harbors and Navigation Act 1993.
3—Objects of this Act
The objects of this Act are—
	(a)	to provide for the efficient and effective administration and management of South Australian harbors and harbor facilities for the purpose of maximising their use and promoting trade; and
	(b)	to ensure that efficient and reliable cargo transfer facilities are established and maintained; and
	(c)	to promote the safe, orderly and efficient movement of shipping within harbors; and
	(d)	to promote the economic use and the proper commercial exploitation of harbors and harbor facilities; and
	(e)	to provide for the safe navigation of vessels in South Australian waters; and
	(f)	to provide for the safe use of South Australian waters for recreational and other aquatic activities; and
	(g)	insofar as this Act applies to the Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary, to further the objects and objectives of the Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary Act 2005; and
	(h)	insofar as this Act applies to a marine park, to further the objects of the Marine Parks Act 2007.
4—Interpretation
	(1)	In this Act, unless the contrary intention appears—
Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary has the same meaning as in the Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary Act 2005;
adjacent land means—
	(a)	land extending from the low water mark on the seashore to the nearest road or section boundary, or to a distance of 50 metres from high water mark (whichever is the lesser distance); or
	(b)	land extending from the edge of any other navigable waterway or body of water in the State to the nearest road or section boundary or for a distance of 50 metres (whichever is the lesser),
(but does not include land vested in fee simple in any person other than the Minister or land withdrawn from the Minister under the transitional provisions);
alcotest means a test by means of apparatus approved for the purpose of conducting alcotests under the Road Traffic Act 1961;
analyst means a person who is an analyst for the purposes of the Road Traffic Act 1961;
approved blood test kit means a kit of a kind declared under the Road Traffic Act 1961 to be an approved blood test kit;
authorised person means a person appointed under Part 2 or a police officer;
boat operator's licence means a boat operator's licence issued under Part 7;
breath analysing instrument means apparatus of a kind approved as a breath analysing instrument under the Road Traffic Act 1961;
breath analysis means an analysis of breath by means of a breath analysing instrument;
category 1 offence means an offence against section 70(2) involving a concentration of alcohol of less than .08 grams in 100 millilitres of blood;
category 2 offence means an offence against section 70(2) involving a concentration of alcohol of not less than .08 grams but less than .15 grams in 100 millilitres of blood;
category 3 offence means an offence against section 70(2) involving a concentration of alcohol of not less than .15 grams in 100 millilitres of blood;
CE means the chief executive of the Department;
commercial vessel means—
	(a)	a domestic commercial vessel; and
	(b)	a vessel used for commercial, governmental or research purposes; and
	(c)	any other vessel of a class declared by the regulations to be included in the ambit of this definition,
but does not include a vessel, or a vessel of a class, declared by the regulations to be excluded from the ambit of this definition; 
crew, of a vessel, includes—
	(a)	the operator of the vessel; and
	(b)	any other person, or person of a class, declared by the regulations to be a member of the vessel's crew,
but does not include a person, or a person of a class, declared by the regulations to be excluded from the ambit of this definition;
department means the administrative unit of the Public Service that is, under the Minister, responsible for the administration of this Act;
domestic commercial vessel has the same meaning as in the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law;
drug screening test means a test by means of an apparatus of a kind approved under the Road Traffic Act 1961 for the purpose of conducting drug screening tests;
excluded vessel means an excluded vessel within the meaning of section 6A;
expiable offence means an offence against this Act declared by regulation to be an expiable offence;
harbor means—
	(a)	any of the harbors mentioned in Schedule 1 (unless declared by regulation not to be a harbor); or
	(b)	a place—
	(i)	at which facilities exist for the loading or mooring of vessels or at which such facilities might be conveniently established; and
	(ii)	declared by regulation to be a harbor;
hospital means an institution declared under the Road Traffic Act 1961 to be a hospital for the purposes of section 47I of that Act;
interest in land means—
	(a)	any legal or equitable estate or interest in the land; or
	(b)	any easement, right, power, or privilege in, under, over, affecting, or in connection with, the land;
jurisdiction means—
	(a)	the State (and, in particular, the navigable waters within its limits); and
	(b)	so much of the territorial sea of Australia as is adjacent to the State; and
	(c)	any other navigable waters declared by regulation to be within the jurisdiction,
but does not include navigable waters declared by regulation not to be within the jurisdiction;
land includes an interest in land;
marine park has the same meaning as in the Marine Parks Act 2007;
master means the person in charge of a commercial vessel but does not include a licensed pilot acting as such;
medical practitioner means a person registered under the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law to practise in the medical profession (other than as a student);
misconduct includes negligence;
navigation of a vessel includes any movement of the vessel from place to place whether or not the vessel moves or is moved under its own power;
navigational aid means—
	(a)	a lighthouse, beacon, buoy, or other mark or structure (whether equipped with a light or not) intended to be an aid to navigation; or
	(b)	a radio beacon or other device intended to be an aid to navigation;
operator, of a vessel, means—
	(a)	in the case of a domestic commercial vessel or any other commercial vessel—the master of the vessel; or
	(b)	in the case of any other vessel—the person in charge of the vessel while the vessel is underway;
oral fluid includes saliva;
oral fluid analysis means the analysis of a person's oral fluid to determine whether a prescribed drug is present in the oral fluid;
owner, of a vessel, includes—
	(a)	in the case of a registered vessel—a person registered on the register as the owner of the vessel; and
	(b)	in the case of a commercial vessel—a charterer of the vessel or an agent of the charterer and a person who takes the vessel on hire;
personal watercraft means a device that—
	(a)	is propelled by a motor; and
	(b)	has a fully enclosed hull; and
	(c)	is designed not to retain water if capsized; and
	(d)	is designed to be operated by a person who sits astride, stands, or kneels on the device,
and includes the device commonly referred to as a jet ski;
pilot means a person, who although not a member of a vessel's crew, temporarily takes control (subject however to the master's overriding authority) of the vessel's navigation;
port means land and waters (which must comprise or include the whole or some of the land and waters constituting a harbor) constituted as a port by the regulations;
port management officer means—
	(a)	a port management officer appointed under section 29; or
	(b)	an authorised person;
port operator means—
	(a)	a person authorised by a port operating agreement to operate a port; or
	(b)	if there is no such person—the Minister;
prescribed alcohol or drug offence means an offence against Part 10 Division 4;
prescribed circumstances—a requirement to submit to an alcotest or breath analysis under section 71, or a direction to stop a vessel for the purpose of making such a requirement, is made or given in prescribed circumstances if the authorised person who makes the requirement or gives the direction believes on reasonable grounds that the person of whom the requirement is, or is to be, made has, within the preceding 8 hours—
	(a)	committed an offence of a prescribed class; or
	(b)	behaved in a manner that indicates that the person's ability to do the following is impaired:
	(i)	operate a vessel; or
	(ii)	as a member of the crew of a vessel, engage in duties affecting the safe navigation, operation or use of the vessel; or
	(c)	been involved in an accident as—
	(i)	the operator of a vessel; or
	(ii)	a member of the crew of a vessel who was, or ought to have been, engaged in duties affecting the safe navigation, operation or use of the vessel;
prescribed concentration of alcohol means a concentration of .05 grams or more in 100 millilitres of blood;
prescribed drug means a substance declared under the Road Traffic Act 1961 to be a prescribed drug;
registered nurse means a person registered under the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law—
	(a)	to practise in the nursing profession as a nurse (other than as a student); and
	(b)	in the registered nurses division of that profession;
subjacent land means land underlying navigable waters within the jurisdiction;
speed, in relation to a vessel, means speed with reference to a stationary horizontal plane (as distinct from speed through water which may itself be in motion);
Tribunal means the South Australian Civil and Administrative Tribunal established under the South Australian Civil and Administrative Tribunal Act 2013;
vessel means—
	(a)	a craft for use, or that is capable of being used, in navigation by water, however propelled or moved (including an air cushion vehicle, a barge, a lighter, a submersible, a ferry in chains and a wing in ground effect craft); and
	(b)	a surf board, wind surf board, personal watercraft, water skis or other similar device on which a person rides through water; or
	(c)	a structure that is designed to float in water and is used for commercial, industrial or scientific purposes; and
	(d)	any other thing declared by the regulations to be included in the ambit of this definition,
but does not include a craft or other thing declared by the regulations not to be included in the ambit of this definition;
wreck includes an abandoned vessel.
	(2)	For the purposes of this Act, a person is taken to operate a vessel if that person—
	(a)	rides on a surfboard or water skis or other similar device; or
	(b)	is towed by a vessel.
	(3)	For the purposes of this Act, the length of a vessel is to be determined in accordance with the regulations.
5—Crown bound
	(1)	This Act binds the Crown not only in right of South Australia but also, so far as the legislative power of the Parliament permits, the Crown in all its other capacities.
	(2)	Nothing in this Act renders the Crown in any of its capacities liable to be prosecuted for an offence.
6—Application of Act
	(1)	This Act applies both within and outside the jurisdiction.
	(2)	This Act applies outside the jurisdiction to the full extent of the extraterritorial power of the Parliament.
6A—Application of Act to certain vessels
	(1)	Other than where a provision of this Act expressly provides otherwise, the following provisions of this Act do not apply to, or in relation to, an excluded vessel:
	(a)	a provision of Part 7;
	(b)	a provision of Part 9;
	(c)	a provision of Part 10 Divisions 1 and 2;
	(d)	a provision of Part 11;
	(e)	a provision of Part 12;
	(f)	a provision of Part 13.
	(2)	A provision of this Act not referred to in subsection (1) applies to, or in relation to, an excluded vessel.
	(3)	In this section—
excluded vessel means—
	(a)	a vessel to which the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law applies; and
	(b)	a vessel to which the application of the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law is extended pursuant to the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law (Application) Act 2013; and
	(c)	any other vessel of a class of vessels declared by the regulations to be included in the ambit of this section.

Part 2—Administration
Division 1—Minister
8—Minister to be corporation sole
	(1)	The Minister is a corporation sole.
	(2)	The Minister has in the Minister's corporate capacity all the powers of a natural person.
	(3)	A document apparently bearing the common seal of the Minister will be presumed, in the absence of contrary evidence, to have been duly executed by the Minister.

Division 2—Chief Executive
9—Responsibility of CE
The CE is, subject to the Minister's control and direction, responsible for carrying this Act into effect.
10—Annual report
	(1)	The CE must, on or before 31 October in each year, report on the administration of this Act during the preceding financial year.
	(2)	The Minister must, within six sitting days after receiving the report, cause copies to be laid before both Houses of Parliament.

Division 3—Delegation
11—Delegation
	(1)	The Minister may delegate to the CE or to any other person any of the Minister's powers under this Act.
	(2)	The CE may delegate powers under this Act (including powers delegated to the CE by the Minister).
	(3)	If a delegation under this section is expressed to be made to the person holding, or acting in, a specified office or position, the delegated powers are exercisable by any person who holds, or is acting in, that position when an occasion for exercising the powers arises.
	(4)	A delegation under this section is revocable at will and does not derogate from the powers of the delegator.

Division 4—Authorised persons
12—Appointment of authorised persons
	(1)	The CE may appoint suitable persons to be authorised persons for the purposes of this Act.
	(1a)	The CE may, with the agreement of a port operator, appoint an officer or employee of the operator to be an authorised person in relation to the relevant port.
	(1b)	The CE may, with the concurrence of a council, appoint an officer or employee of the council to be an authorised person for the purposes of this Act.
	(2)	An appointment under this section may be subject to conditions, including a condition limiting the exercise of powers by the authorised person to the enforcement of specified provisions of the Act or to enforcement within a specified area of the State.
	(3)	An authorised person appointed under this section must be issued with an identity card—
	(a)	containing a photograph of the person; and
	(b)	if the authorised person's authority is limited to a particular port—stating the name of the port; and
	(c)	stating any conditions of appointment limiting the authorised person's authority.
13—Production of identity card
If it is practicable to do so, an authorised person must, at the request of a person against whom the authorised person proposes to exercise statutory powers, produce the authorised person's identity card or, if the authorised person is a police officer, the police officer's warrant card, for inspection by that person.
14—Powers of authorised person
	(1)	Subject to any conditions specified in the instrument of appointment, an authorised person may, for any purpose connected with the administration or enforcement of this Act, exercise any of the following powers—
	(a)	the authorised person may direct any person who is apparently in charge of a vessel to manoeuvre the vessel in a specified manner, to stop the vessel, or to stop the vessel and secure it in a specified manner;
	(b)	the authorised person may board a vessel—
	(i)	for the purpose of determining—
	(A)	whether the person in charge of the vessel holds a boat operator's licence or other qualification required under this Act, or an exemption from the requirement to hold a boat operator's licence or other qualification;
	(B)	whether the vessel is safe;
	(C)	whether the vessel is registered in accordance with this Act;
	(E)	whether the vessel has the equipment and markings required by the regulations and whether the equipment is in good working order;
	(F)	whether the vessel is properly loaded in accordance with the regulations;
	(ii)	for the purpose of investigating—
	(A)	a suspected offence; or
	(B)	an accident involving a vessel in the jurisdiction and resulting in loss of life or injury or in damage to property; or
	(C)	any other matter having a proper connection with the administration of this Act;
	(iii)	for the purpose of requiring a person who is operating the vessel or a member of the crew of the vessel who is, or ought to be, engaged in duties affecting the safe navigation of the vessel to submit to an alcotest or breath analysis;
	(c)	the authorised person may require a person apparently acting in a position for which a boat operator's licence is required under this Act to produce, at a specified place and within a specified period, the boat operator's licence or evidence that the person is exempt from the requirement to hold a boat operator's licence;
	(d)	the authorised person may require a person who is apparently in charge of a vessel to produce a certificate of registration in respect of the vessel;
	(e)	the authorised person may require a person whom the authorised person reasonably suspects of having committed an offence against this Act or who is, in the authorised person's opinion, in a position to give evidence of the commission of such an offence, to state the person's name and address;
	(f)	for the purposes of investigating—
	(i)	a suspected offence; or
	(ii)	an accident involving a vessel in the jurisdiction and resulting in loss of life or injury, or in damage to property; or
	(iii)	any other matter having a proper connection with the administration of this Act,
the authorised person may—
	(iv)	require a person to answer questions relevant to the investigation; and
	(v)	require a person to produce records or equipment that the authorised person reasonably suspects are relevant to the investigation; and
	(vi)	may inspect the records or equipment, make copies of the records or their contents or test the equipment and, where reasonably necessary for those purposes, seize and retain the records or equipment.
	(1a)	Subject to any conditions specified in the instrument of appointment, an authorised person may give expiation notices under the Expiation of Offences Act 1996 for alleged offences against this Act.
	(2)	A person who—
	(a)	without reasonable excuse, fails to obey a direction or requirement of an authorised person under this Act; or
	(b)	hinders or obstructs an authorised person in the exercise of powers under this Act,
is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $1 250.

Division 5—Miscellaneous
14A—Matters to be taken into account in relation to specially protected areas
The Minister, the CE, an authorised person or any other person engaged in the administration of this Act must, if taking any action under this Act—
	(a)	that is within the Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary, or likely to have a direct impact on the Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary—
	(i)	seek to further the objects and objectives of the Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary Act 2005; and
	(ii)	take into account the provisions of the Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary Management Plan under the Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary Act 2005, (insofar as may be relevant); or
	(b)	that is within a marine park, or likely to have a direct impact on a marine park—
	(i)	seek to further the objects of the Marine Parks Act 2007; and
	(ii)	take into account the provisions of the management plan for the marine park under the Marine Parks Act 2007 (insofar as may be relevant).

Part 3—Property
Division 1—Vesting of property
15—Property of Crown
	(1)	Subject to subsection (2), the following property is vested in the Minister—
	(a)	all adjacent and subjacent land;
	(b)	all wharves, docks, jetties and other structures that are situated in a harbor;
	(c)	all wharves, docks, jetties and other structures situated outside a harbor but on adjacent or subjacent land;
	(d)	all navigational aids within the jurisdiction.
	(2)	The land that is vested in the Minister under this section is vested for an estate in fee simple but subject to any pre-existing registered interests in that land.
	(3)	This section does not apply to—
	(a)	real or personal property vested in the Commonwealth, a council, or in private ownership at the commencement of this Act or subsequently transferred to the Commonwealth, a council or to private ownership; or
	(b)	land that forms part of a reserve under the National Parks and Wildlife Act 1972; or
	(c)	real or personal property excluded by regulation from the ambit of this section.
	(4)	The Crown Lands Act 1929 does not apply in relation to land vested in the Minister under this Act but the Crown may, with the concurrence of the Minister, exercise any other power that it has to grant a lease or licence over its land in relation to land vested in the Minister under this Act.

Division 2—Acquisition of land
16—Acquisition of land
	(1)	The Minister may acquire land—
	(a)	for the purpose of establishing or improving a harbor or harbor facilities; or
	(b)	for the purposes of facilitating industrial or commercial development associated with or to be associated with a harbor.
	(2)	The Land Acquisition Act 1969 applies to the acquisition of land under this section.

Division 3—Resumption of land
17—Resumption
The Governor may, by proclamation, resume land held by a council or other public authority as a reserve, street, road or for other public purposes—
	(a)	for the purpose of establishing or improving a harbor or harbor facilities; or
	(b)	for the purposes of facilitating industrial or commercial development associated with or to be associated with a harbor.

Division 4—Care, control and management of property
18—Care, control and management of property
	(1)	The Governor may, by proclamation, place any adjacent or subjacent land belonging to the Minister or any structure belonging to the Minister on adjacent or subjacent land, under the care, control and management of—
	(a)	any Minister of the Crown; or
	(b)	a council; or
	(c)	the Coast Protection Board; or
	(d)	any other authority or body.
	(2)	A proclamation under subsection (1)—
	(a)	may impose conditions in relation to the care, control and management of the land or structure to which it relates; and
	(b)	may be varied or revoked by a later proclamation.
	(3)	A proclamation under subsection (1) may not be made in relation to land, or a structure on land, that is within the area of a council unless the council has been consulted and given an opportunity to make representations on the matter.
	(4)	Subject to any provision made by proclamation under this section, the care, control and management of adjacent and subjacent land, and of structures situated on adjacent or subjacent land (except land and structures in private ownership) are—
	(a)	if within the area of a council but not within a harbor—under the care, control and management of the council; and
	(b)	in any other case—under the care, control and management of the Minister.
18A—By-laws
	(1)	A council may, with the approval of the relevant authority, make by-laws that operate in relation to—
	(a)	a port or part of a port; or
	(b)	a harbor or part of a harbor; or
	(c)	adjacent or subjacent land that is neither within a port nor a harbor.
	(1a)	The relevant authority is—
	(a)	for a port—the port operator; or
	(b)	in any other case—the Minister.
	(2)	The Local Government Act 1934 applies to by-laws made under this section as if—
	(a)	any part of the harbor or land in relation to which the by-laws operate that is not within the area of the council were within the area of the council; and
	(b)	any part of the harbor or land in relation to which the by-laws operate that is not under the care, control and management of the council were under the care, control and management of the council.
	(3)	The Governor may at any time, by notice in the Gazette, revoke by-laws made under this section.
	(4)	The Minister must consult with the council concerned before by-laws are revoked under subsection (3).

Division 5—Dealings with property
19—Power to grant leases and licences over land
	(1)	The Minister may, on such terms and conditions as the Minister thinks fit, grant a lease of, a licence over, or other rights to occupy or use, land or a structure that is under the Minister's care, control and management under this Act.
	(2)	The Minister may, on such terms and conditions as the Minister thinks fit, sell or otherwise dispose of land or a structure that is under the Minister's care, control and management under this Act.
	(3)	An authority or body may, with the Minister's approval, grant a lease of, a licence over, or other rights to occupy or use, land or a structure under its care, control and management under this Act.

Division 6—Rateability of land
20—Rateability of land
	(1)	Subject to subsection (2), land vested in the Crown under this Act is not rateable under the Local Government Act 1934.
	(2)	If any such land (other than subjacent land in a port) is occupied under a lease or licence by some person other than the Crown or an instrumentality or agency of the Crown, that person is liable as occupier of the land to rates levied under the Local Government Act 1934.

Division 7—Damage to property
21—Liability for damage
	(1)	If property of the Crown or the Minister is damaged by a vessel, the owner of the vessel is liable to the Minister for the amount of the damage.
	(2)	If property in private ownership consisting of harbor facilities or a navigational aid is damaged by a vessel, the owner of the vessel is liable to the owner of the property for the amount of the damage.
	(3)	The liability may be enforced by action against the owner or by action against the vessel (or both).
	(4)	This section creates a strict liability that exists irrespective of fault and irrespective of whether the vessel is under compulsory pilotage at the time the damage is caused.

Part 4—General powers to protect navigation and to restrict use of waters
Division 1—Navigational aids
22—Control of navigational aids
	(1)	The Minister is entitled to possession and control of all navigational aids within the jurisdiction except those belonging to the Commonwealth.
	(2)	The Minister may, on terms and conditions consistent with any relevant port operating agreement, delegate to a port operator control over a navigational aid situated in, or on the approach to, the port.
	(3)	If a navigational aid existing at the commencement of this subsection is situated on land that was not then owned by the Minister, or is later disposed of, an easement over the land is created entitling the Minister—
	(a)	to maintain a navigational aid on the land; and
	(b)	to have such access to the land as may be necessary for operating, maintaining, repairing, replacing or removing the navigational aid.
	(4)	If the Minister reasonably requires access to land for the purpose of operating, maintaining, repairing, replacing or removing a navigational aid on adjacent land or waters, an easement is created conferring on the Minister the rights of access reasonably necessary for those purposes.
23—Establishment of navigational aids
	(1)	The Minister may establish and maintain such navigational aids as the Minister considers necessary or desirable for the safe navigation of vessels within the jurisdiction.
	(2)	The Minister may direct any person who carries on a business involving the mooring, loading or unloading of vessels to establish, maintain and operate navigational aids of a specified kind at specified places.
	(3)	A person who fails, without reasonable excuse, to comply with a direction under subsection (2) is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
24—Interference with navigational aids
	(1)	A person must not, without the Minister's permission, interfere with a navigational aid.
Maximum penalty: $750.
	(2)	For the purposes of subsection (1), the mooring of a vessel to a navigational aid constitutes interference with the navigational aid.
	(3)	If the Minister is of the opinion that a particular light or signal might be confused with the light or signal produced by a navigational aid, the Minister may, by notice in writing to the person in charge of the device that produces the light or signal, require the person to take action specified in the notice to prevent the possibility of confusion.
	(4)	If a person fails to comply with a requirement under subsection (3) within the time allowed in the notice, the Minister may take the action specified in the notice and recover the cost of doing so from the person.
	(5)	A person who fails, without reasonable excuse, to comply with a notice under subsection (3) is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $750.

Division 2—Clearance of wrecks
25—Clearance of wrecks etc
	(1)	The Minister may, by notice in writing, require the owner of any wreck within the jurisdiction to remove the wreck.
	(1a)	A port operator may, by notice in writing, require the owner of any wreck within the port to remove the wreck.
	(2)	If a person deposits any substance or thing within the jurisdiction so as to obstruct navigation, or to pollute waters, the Minister may, by notice in writing, require that person to take action specified in the notice to remove the substance or thing or to mitigate the consequences of the pollution.
	(2a)	If a person deposits any substance or thing within a port so as to obstruct navigation, or to pollute waters, the port operator may, by notice in writing, require that person to take action specified in the notice to remove the substance or thing or to mitigate the consequences of the pollution.
	(3)	If a person fails to comply with a requirement under this section within the time allowed in the notice, the Minister or the port operator (as the case requires) may remove the wreck or take the action specified in the notice and recover the costs of doing so, as a debt, from the person in default.
	(4)	A person who fails without reasonable excuse to comply with a notice under this section is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
	(5)	A court by which a person is convicted of an offence against subsection (4) may, on application by the Minister or the port operator (as the case requires), order the convicted person to reimburse costs reasonably incurred by the applicant in acting under subsection (3) (to the extent those costs have not been already recovered).

Division 3—Restrictions on use of waters
26—Licences for aquatic activities
	(1)	The CE may grant a licence entitling an organisation or person to use, in accordance with the terms and conditions of the licence, any waters within the jurisdiction for the purposes of an aquatic sport or activity or for any other purposes stated in the licence.
	(2)	If the licence is to be granted in relation to waters within a port, the CE may only grant the licence with the consent of the port operator (but the operator's consent must not be unreasonably withheld).
	(2a)	If the licence is to be granted in relation to waters that form part of the River Murray, the CE must—
	(a)	consult with the Minister to whom the administration of the River Murray Act 2003 is committed; and
	(b)	comply with the Minister's directions (if any) in relation to the issuing of the licence (including a direction that the licence not be granted, or that if it is to be granted, then the licence be subject to conditions specified by the Minister).
	(2b)	If the licence is to be granted in relation to waters that form part of—
	(a)	the Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary—the CE must consult with and have regard to the views of the Minister to whom the administration of the Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary Act 2005 is committed; or
	(b)	a marine park—the CE must consult with and have regard to the views of the Minister to whom the administration of the Marine Parks Act 2007 is committed.
	(2c)	The regulations may exclude specified categories of licence from the operation of subsection (2a) or (2b).
	(3)	The licensee may be required by the terms and conditions of the licence to take specified action for the purposes of informing the public of the area of waters to which the licence relates and of the times the licensee is entitled to use of those waters in accordance with the licence.
	(4)	A person who, without the consent of the licensee, intrudes into waters when the licensee has, under the licence, an exclusive right to use those waters is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $750.1
Expiation fee: $105.
	(5)	The CE may revoke a licence granted under this section for a breach of a term or condition of the licence.
	(6)	In this section—
River Murray has the same meaning as in the River Murray Act 2003.
Note—
1	By virtue of Act No. 17 of 2001 s 4 (see Gazette 25.10.2001 p4686) the maximum penalty for this offence was fixed at $750 (no expiation fee) for 30 October 2001 only. Section 26 was substituted on 31 October 2001 by Act No. 81 of 2000 s 11 (see Gazette 25.10.2001 p4687).
27—Restricted areas
	(1)	The Governor may, by regulation, regulate, restrict or prohibit—
	(a)	the entry of vessels or vessels of a specified class into specified waters within the jurisdiction; or
	(b)	the operation or use of vessels in specified waters within the jurisdiction; or
	(c)	aquatic activity or aquatic activity of a specified class in specified waters within the jurisdiction.
	(1a)	A regulation may only be made under subsection (1) in relation to waters within a port with the consent of the port operator (but consent must not be unreasonably withheld).
	(2)	The Minister must take reasonable steps to inform the public of the nature of requirements of any regulation under this section and of the waters to which it applies by marking out the waters and erecting notices in the vicinity or by other appropriate means.
	(3)	If a regulation is made under this section at the request of a port operator (other than the Minister) or a council, the Minister may recover costs incurred under subsection (2) from the port operator or council as a debt.

Part 5—Harbors and ports
Division 1—Control and management of harbors and ports
28—Control and management of harbors
Subject to this Part, the Minister has the control and management of all harbors in the State.
28A—Power to assign control and management of ports
	(1)	The Minister may, by agreement, confer on another (the proprietor) the right to carry on the business of operating a particular port.
	(2)	The proprietor must then enter into an agreement (a port operating agreement) under which the Minister assigns the control and management of the port to the proprietor or a nominee of the proprietor unless—
	(a)	the Minister and the proprietor enter into an agreement under which the Minister is to continue to have the control and management of the port; or
	(b)	the proprietor has committed a serious breach of a port operating agreement and the Minister has cancelled or refused to renew the agreement on that ground.
	(3)	If the Minister has the control and management of a port, the Minister may, subject to the terms of any agreement between the Minister and the proprietor, recover the costs of operating the port from the proprietor.
28B—Port operating agreements
	(1)	A port operating agreement is an agreement providing for the control and management of the port to which the agreement relates by the person (the port operator) to whom the control and management of the port is assigned under the agreement.
	(2)	A port operating agreement—
	(a)	must require the port operator to have appropriate resources (including appropriate contingency plans and trained staff and equipment to carry the plans into action) to deal with emergencies; and
	(b)	must require the port operator—
	(i)	to maintain the waters of the port to a specified navigable standard; and
	(ii)	to provide or maintain (or provide and maintain) navigational aids; and
	(iii)	to direct and control vessel movement in port waters; and
	(c)	may require the port operator to enter into and maintain in operation an agreement with the Royal Australian Navy about access to the port and port facilities by naval vessels; and
	(d)	may require the port operator to provide access to the port and port facilities for commercial fishing vessels on specified terms and conditions; and
	(e)	may require the port operator to maintain and make available navigational charts and other information relating to the port; and
	(f)	may regulate the performance of statutory powers by the port operator; and
	(g)	may provide for the payment of an annual fee to the Minister (fixed by the Minister having regard to the cost of providing government supervision of the activities conducted under the agreement); and
	(h)	may deal with any other matter relevant to the control and management of the port.
28C—General responsibility of port operator
	(1)	A port operator is responsible for the safe operation of the port.
28D—Variation of port operating agreement
The Minister may, by agreement with the port operator, vary a port operating agreement.
28E—Agreements to be tabled in Parliament
The Minister must, as soon as practicable after entering into a port operating agreement or an agreement for the variation of a port operating agreement, have copies of the agreement laid before both Houses of Parliament.
28F—Power to deal with non-compliance
	(1)	The Minister may take disciplinary action against a port operator for non-compliance with a port operating agreement or this Act.
	(2)	The disciplinary action may consist of—
	(a)	a reprimand; or
	(b)	a fine not exceeding a limit fixed in the port operating agreement; or
	(c)	cancellation of the port operating agreement.
	(3)	Before the Minister takes disciplinary action against a port operator under this section, the Minister must give written notice to the port operator—
	(a)	specifying the non-compliance; and
	(b)	stating the disciplinary action the Minister proposes to take in respect of the non-compliance; and
	(c)	allowing the port operator a reasonable opportunity to make written representations.
	(4)	After considering the port operator's representations, the Minister may—
	(a)	refrain from taking disciplinary action; or
	(b)	by written notice to the port operator—
	(i)	administer a reprimand; or
	(ii)	impose a fine (to be recoverable as a debt due to the Crown) of an amount stated in the earlier notice or of a lesser amount; or
	(iii)	if cancellation of the port operating agreement was proposed in the earlier notice—
	(A)	impose a fine not exceeding the maximum permissible under the port operating agreement; or
	(B)	cancel the port operating agreement.
	(5)	A port operator may apply to the Tribunal under section 34 of the South Australian Civil and Administrative Tribunal Act 2013 for a review of a decision of the Minister to take disciplinary action against the port operator under this section.
	(5a)	For the purposes of proceedings before the Tribunal under this section, a panel of assessors must be established under section 22 of the South Australian Civil and Administrative Tribunal Act 2013 consisting of persons with expertise that would be of value to the Tribunal in relation to the proceedings.
	(5b)	In any proceedings under this section, the Tribunal may, if the President of the Tribunal so determines, sit with 1 or more assessors.
	(5c)	Section 37(1)(c)(ii) of the South Australian Civil and Administrative Tribunal Act 2013 does not apply in relation to a review of a decision of the Minister to take disciplinary action against a port operator under this section.
	(7)	The port operating agreement may contain provisions governing the exercise of the Minister's powers under this section.
28G—Power to appoint manager
	(1)	If—
	(a)	a port operator is seriously in breach of its obligations under a port operating agreement; or
	(b)	a port operating agreement is cancelled or expires without renewal,
the Minister may appoint an official manager to operate the port.
	(2)	If a port operator—
	(a)	becomes insolvent within the meaning of Part 7.10 of the Corporations Law; or
	(b)	goes into liquidation,
the Minister may appoint an official manager to operate the port.
	(3)	An appointment under subsection (1) or (2) may be terminated at any time by the Minister.
	(4)	The port operating agreement may contain provisions governing the exercise of the Minister's powers under this section.
28H—Powers of the manager
	(1)	The official manager—
	(a)	is to assume the control and management of the port; and
	(b)	is entitled to possession and control of property of the port operator (or former port operator)—
	(i)	used for the purpose of operating the port; and
	(ii)	defined in the port operating agreement as property subject to the application of this paragraph; and
	(c)	is, while the appointment continues in force, taken to be the port operator.
	(2)	Any proceeds of the business while under official management are to be applied as follows:
	(a)	first, the proceeds are to be applied towards the costs of official management (including the official manager's remuneration); and
	(b)	secondly, a reasonable rental for the property over which the manager has assumed control is to be paid out of the proceeds while the property remains in the manager's possession; and
	(c)	thirdly, any remaining balance is to be paid into the Consolidated Account.
	(3)	A port operating agreement may exclude or modify the provisions of subsection (1) or (2).
	(4)	The regulations may confer powers and impose duties on official managers and regulate official management in other ways.

Division 2—Port management officers
29—Port management officers
	(1)	A port operator may appoint officers or employees of the operator to be port management officers.
	(2)	The port operator must issue to each port management officer appointed by it an identity card—
	(a)	containing a photograph of the officer; and
	(b)	stating the name of the port for which the officer is appointed; and
	(c)	stating any conditions of appointment limiting the officer's authority.
	(3)	A port management officer must, at the request of any person in relation to whom the officer is exercising or about to exercise powers under this Act, produce the officer's identity card for inspection by that person.

Division 2A—Operational powers
29A—Interpretation
In this Division—
authorised officer means—
	(a)	in relation to a port—a port management officer;
	(b)	in relation to a harbor that is not a port, or a part of a harbor that is not within a port—an authorised person.
29B—Power of direction
	(1)	An authorised officer may give a direction (orally, by signal, radio communication, or in any other appropriate manner) to a person in charge, or apparently in charge, of a vessel in or in the vicinity of a harbor or a port.
	(2)	A direction may, for example—
	(a)	require that vessels proceed to load or unload in a particular order; or
	(b)	require that a vessel be moored or anchored in a particular position; or
	(c)	require that a vessel be secured in a particular way; or
	(d)	require that a vessel be moved from a particular area or position; or
	(e)	require the production of documents relating to the navigation, operation, pilotage, use or loading of the vessel.
	(3)	A person who fails, without reasonable excuse, to comply with a direction under this section is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
29C—Power to board vessel
	(1)	A person in charge of a vessel in a harbor or port must, at the request of an authorised officer, permit the officer—
	(a)	to board the vessel; and
	(b)	to inspect the vessel and its cargo; and
	(c)	to carry out on the vessel any investigation necessary to ensure that the vessel and the business in the course of which the vessel is being used is being operated lawfully.
	(2)	If there is no-one on board a vessel to whom a request may be given under subsection (1), the authorised officer may board the vessel and cause the vessel to be moved as the officer thinks fit.
	(3)	Any costs incurred by an authorised officer under subsection (2) are recoverable as a debt from the owner of the vessel.
	(4)	A person who fails to comply with a request under this section is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.

Division 3—Harbor improvement work
30—Dredging or other similar work
	(1)	The Minister or a port operator may carry out dredging or other work to deepen, extend or clear a harbor or port.
	(2)	If the owner of a wharf benefits from work carried out by the Minister under subsection (1), the Minister may recover a reasonable proportion of the cost of the work from that owner.
	(3)	The proportion of the cost to be recovered is to be determined by agreement between the Minister and the owner or, in default of agreement, by an arbitrator appointed under the Commercial Arbitration Act 1986.
30A—Development of harbors and maritime facilities
	(1)	The Minister or a port operator may carry out work of any kind for the development or improvement of a harbor or port.
	(2)	The Minister or port operator may, for example, establish facilities for—
	(a)	the anchorage or mooring of vessels;
	(b)	the maintenance and repair of vessels;
	(c)	the loading and unloading of passengers or goods;
	(d)	the storage of goods;
	(e)	facilitating industrial or commercial development associated with or to be associated with a harbor or port;
	(f)	sporting or recreational purposes.
	(3)	A port operator—
	(a)	must establish and maintain facilities and equipment for the safety of life and property in the port as required under a port operating agreement; and
	(b)	may establish and maintain other facilities and equipment for the safety of life and property.
30B—Application of Development Act 1993
The powers conferred by this Division are subject to the Development Act 1993.

Division 4—Harbor charges etc
31—Power to fix charges
	(1)	Subject to any relevant law or determination, the Minister may fix charges—
	(a)	for the use of facilities provided by the Minister for—
	(i)	the mooring of vessels;
	(ii)	the loading or unloading of passengers or goods;
	(iii)	the storage of goods;
	(iv)	the safe navigation of vessels;
	(v)	any other purpose; or
	(b)	for the entry of vessels into waters under the Minister's control and management; or
	(c)	for services provided by the Minister.
	(2)	The Minister may fix default charges to be paid if a charge fixed under this section is not paid within a specified period.
	(3)	The Minister must publish Schedules of the charges and default charges fixed under this section.
31A—Power to waive or reduce charges
The Minister may waive or reduce a charge (or default charge), or extend the time for payment of a charge (or default charge), as the Minister thinks fit.
31B—Charges in respect of goods
	(1)	A charge (or default charge) payable under this Division in respect of the unloading or storage of goods is recoverable as a debt from the consignor or consignee of the goods.
	(2)	The Minister may retain possession of goods until the appropriate charge is paid.
	(3)	If the charge is not paid within 60 days after the goods are unloaded, the Minister may, after giving notice in writing to the consignee of the goods, sell the goods and retain the charge (together with any default charges and the costs of conducting the sale) from the proceeds of sale.
31C—Charges in respect of vessels
	(1)	If a charge to which the Minister is entitled in respect of a vessel is not paid by the date payment falls due, an authorised person may, at the Minister's direction, arrest the vessel and take it into the Minister's custody.
	(2)	If the charge remains unpaid 60 days after the vessel is taken into the Minister's custody, the Minister may, after giving notice to the owner of the vessel, sell the vessel and retain the charge (together with any default charges and the costs of conducting the sale) from the proceeds of sale.
31D—Power to prevent use of harbor or port facilities
	(1)	If a person is in default in the payment of a charge (or default charge) payable under this Division, the Minister may, by written notice given to the person in default, prohibit the person from using harbor or port facilities provided by the Crown until the charge has been paid.
	(2)	A person must not use facilities in contravention of a prohibition imposed under subsection (1).
Maximum penalty: $5 000.

Part 5A—Pilotage
33—Licensing of pilots
	(1)	The CE may license persons qualified in accordance with the regulations as pilots.
	(1a)	A licence remains in force for the period specified in the regulations and may be renewed in accordance with the regulations.
	(2)	A licence may be granted under this section on such conditions as the CE thinks fit.
	(3)	The CE may, by notice in writing to the holder of a licence under this Part, vary or revoke a condition of the licence.
	(4)	A person who holds a licence under this Part must not contravene or fail to comply with a condition of the licence.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
	(5)	The CE may, by notice in writing to a licensed pilot, cancel the licence if satisfied that the pilot—
	(a)	has been guilty of incompetence or breach of duty; or
	(b)	has breached a condition of licence; or
	(c)	has suffered mental or physical incapacity rendering the pilot incapable of satisfactorily performing the duties of a pilot.
	(6)	On cancellation of a licence under this section, the former licensee must return the licence to the CE.
Maximum penalty: $750.
34—Pilotage exemption certificate
	(1)	The CE may issue a pilotage exemption certificate to the master of a vessel in accordance with the regulations.
	(1a)	A pilotage exemption certificate remains in force for the period specified in the regulations and may be renewed in accordance with the regulations.
	(2)	A pilotage exemption certificate may be granted on such conditions as the CE thinks fit.
	(3)	The CE may, by notice in writing to the holder of a pilotage exemption certificate under this Part, vary or revoke a condition of the certificate.
	(4)	A person who holds a pilotage exemption certificate under this Part must not contravene or fail to comply with a condition of the certificate.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
	(4a)	A pilotage exemption certificate lapses if the holder does not continue to have the periodic experience in the navigation of vessels required by the regulations.
	(5)	The CE may, by notice in writing to the holder of a pilotage exemption certificate, cancel the certificate if there are, in the CE's opinion, proper reasons for doing so.
	(6)	On cancellation of a pilotage exemption certificate under this section, the former holder of the certificate must return the certificate to the CE.
Maximum penalty: $750.
35—Compulsory pilotage
	(1)	A vessel 35 metres or more in length must not be navigated within a prescribed area unless—
	(a)	the vessel is navigated under the control or at the direction of a licensed pilot; or
	(b)	the master of the vessel holds a pilotage exemption certificate under this Part.
	(2)	If a vessel is navigated in contravention of this section, the owner and the master are each guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $10 000.
	(4)	The CE may, subject to such conditions as the CE thinks fit, exempt a vessel from the requirements of this section.
	(5)	In this section—
prescribed area means—
	(a)	a harbor prescribed by the regulations for the purposes of this section; and
	(b)	any other area of this jurisdiction prescribed by the regulations for the purposes of this section.
36—Duties and immunities of pilots
	(1)	The duty of a pilot is to pilot the vessel subject to the authority of the master, and the fact that a vessel is under pilotage does not relieve the master from responsibility for the navigation of the vessel.
	(2)	No civil liability attaches to a pilot or to a pilot's employer for negligence by the pilot in relation to the pilotage of the vessel (but this subsection does not relieve from liability that may attach to a person as owner of a vessel).
	(3)	The liability of the owner or master of a ship for damage resulting from a fault in the navigation of the ship is unaffected by the fact that the vessel is under pilotage or that the pilotage is compulsory.

Part 7—Boat operator's licence etc
46—Vessels to which this Part applies
This Part applies to—
	(a)	a vessel fitted with an engine; and
	(b)	any other vessel of a class declared by regulation to be a class of vessels to which this Part applies.
47—Requirement for boat operator's licence, exemption or permit
	(3)	A person must not operate a vessel to which this Part applies unless that person holds—
	(a)	a boat operator's licence; or
	(b)	an exemption from the requirement to hold a boat operator's licence; or
	(c)	a special permit granted under the regulations; or
	(d)	a prescribed certificate of competency that is in force.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
Expiation fee: $315.
	(3a)	A person must not cause, suffer or permit another to operate a vessel to which this Part applies unless the other person holds—
	(a)	a boat operator's licence; or
	(b)	an exemption from the requirement to hold a boat operator's licence; or
	(c)	a special permit granted under the regulations; or
	(d)	a prescribed certificate of competency that is in force.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
Expiation fee: $315.
	(4)	This section does not apply in relation to a hire and drive vessel (within the meaning of section 47A).
	(5)	A person who commits an offence against this section while disqualified from holding a boat operator's licence is liable to a fine of twice the amount prescribed above.
	(6)	In this section—
prescribed certificate of competency means—
	(a)	a certificate of competency (within the meaning of the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law); or
	(b)	a certificate of competency (however described) issued by a State or Territory that continues to have effect pursuant to transitional provisions made under the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law),
but does not include a certificate of competency of a kind declared by the regulations not to be a prescribed certificate of competency for the purposes of this definition (whether generally or in relation to the operation of a vessel in a particular area).
47A—Requirements for operators of hire and drive vessels
	(1)	Without limiting section 46, this section applies to, or in relation to, an excluded vessel that is a hire and drive vessel fitted with an engine.
	(2)	A person must not operate a hire and drive vessel fitted with an engine unless the person holds—
	(a)	a boat operator's licence; or
	(b)	a prescribed certificate of competency; or
	(c)	an exemption from the operation of this subsection; or
	(d)	a special permit granted under the regulations.
Maximum penalty: $2 500.
Expiation fee: $105.
	(3)	A person must not cause, suffer or permit another to operate a hire and drive vessel fitted with an engine unless the other person holds—
	(a)	a boat operator's licence; or
	(b)	a prescribed certificate of competency; or
	(c)	an exemption from the operation of this subsection; or
	(d)	a special permit granted under the regulations.
Maximum penalty: $2 500.
Expiation fee: $105.
	(4)	However, subsections (2) and (3) do not apply in relation to—
	(a)	the operation on the River Murray system (within the meaning of the River Murray Act 2003) between the border of South Australia and a line joining the upstream sides of the landings used by the ferry at Wellington of a hire and drive vessel that is a houseboat by a person who—
	(i)	is at least 18 years of age; and
	(ii)	holds either—
	(A)	a current driver's licence under the Motor Vehicles Act 1959 endorsed with the classification C or R; or
	(B)	a current interstate licence or foreign licence (as defined in the Motor Vehicles Act 1959) authorising the person to drive motor vehicles of the kind that may be driven pursuant to a driver's licence referred to in subsubparagraph (A) and is, by virtue of section 97A of that Act, authorised to drive such motor vehicles on roads in this State; and
	(iii)	has received such practical and written instruction in relation to the operation of the houseboat as the regulations may require; or
	(b)	the operation in waters specified by the CE for the purposes of this paragraph of a hire and drive small vessel by a person who—
	(i)	is at least 16 years of age; and
	(ii)	has received such practical and written instruction in relation to the operation of the vessel as the regulations may require.
	(5)	For the purposes of subsection (4)(b), the CE may specify waters—
	(a)	by reference to particular waters, or waters of a specified class; or
	(b)	by reference to the waters in which a particular hire and drive small vessel, or a hire and drive vessel of a specified class, may be operated.
	(6)	For the purposes of this section, a vessel will be taken to be a houseboat if—
	(a)	the vessel has facilities for overnight accommodation; and
	(b)	—
	(i)	all the living facilities are on or above the deck of the vessel; or
	(ii)	although not all the living facilities are on or above the deck of the vessel, the vessel is designed and constructed as a river boat providing living facilities similar to that provided in a residential building and the CE and the owner of the vessel agree that the vessel is to be classed as a houseboat.
	(7)	A person who commits an offence against subsection (2) while disqualified from holding a boat operator's licence or prescribed certificate of competency (as the case requires) is liable to a fine of twice the amount prescribed above.
	(8)	In this section—
personal watercraft means a device that—
	(a)	is propelled by a motor; and
	(b)	has a fully enclosed hull; and
	(c)	is designed not to retain water if capsized; and
	(d)	is designed to be operated by a person who sits astride, stands, or kneels on the device,
and includes the device commonly referred to as a jet ski;
prescribed certificate of competency has the same meaning as in section 47;
hire and drive small vessel means a hire and drive vessel that is—
	(a)	a personal watercraft; or
	(b)	a motorised dinghy having a length not exceeding 5 m;
hire and drive vessel means any vessel which is let for hire or reward or for any other consideration, including vessels provided in conjunction with holiday establishments or hotels for the use of guests or tenants.
48—Issue of boat operator's licence or exemption
	(1)	The CE must arrange for the examination of applicants seeking a boat operator's licence.
	(2)	A person who—
	(a)	passes the examination for a boat operator's licence; and
	(b)	satisfies any requirements set out in the regulations in relation to the issue of a boat operator's licence; and
	(c)	satisfies the CE that the person is a fit and proper person to hold a boat operator's licence,
is entitled to be issued with a boat operator's licence.
	(3)	A person who is entitled to a boat operator's licence will, on payment of the fee fixed by regulation, be issued with a boat operator's licence.
	(4)	A boat operator's licence continues in operation without renewal and without payment of any further fee.
	(5)	The CE may, on such conditions as the CE thinks fit, exempt a person from the obligation to sit an examination for a boat operator's licence, or to hold a boat operator's licence.
49—Cancellation of boat operator's licence by court
Where a court convicts the holder of a boat operator's licence of an offence against this Act showing the holder to have been incompetent or guilty of misconduct or to have failed in the holder's duty in a matter related to navigation, the court may, in addition to imposing any other penalty, cancel the boat operator's licence and disqualify the holder from again holding a boat operator's licence for a specified period or until further order.
50—Cancellation of boat operator's licence by CE
	(1)	If the holder of a boat operator's licence—
	(a)	is shown by the findings of the Court of Marine Enquiry or a court or tribunal with similar powers under the law of some other place to have been incompetent or guilty of misconduct or to have failed in the holder's duty in a matter related to navigation; or
	(b)	is convicted of an offence showing the holder of the boat operator's licence to have been incompetent or guilty of misconduct or to have failed in the holder's duty in a matter related to navigation; or
	(c)	is disqualified from holding a qualification equivalent to a boat operator's licence (however described) under the law of another place, or
	(d)	is shown to have suffered mental or physical incapacity rendering the holder incapable of satisfactorily operating a vessel or performing duties pursuant to the boat operator's licence,
the CE may, by notice in writing given to the holder, cancel the boat operator's licence and disqualify the holder from again holding a boat operator's licence for a specified period or until further notice.
	(2)	If the holder of a qualification under the law of some other place—
	(a)	is convicted of an offence showing the holder of the qualification to have been incompetent or guilty of misconduct or to have failed in the holder's duty in a matter related to navigation; or
	(b)	has been found by the Court of Marine Enquiry or a court or tribunal with similar powers under the law of some other place to have been incompetent or guilty of misconduct or to have failed in the holder's duty in a matter related to navigation, or
	(c)	is shown to have suffered mental or physical incapacity rendering the holder incapable of satisfactorily operating a vessel or performing duties pursuant to the qualification,
the CE may declare the qualification to be inoperative in the jurisdiction and while such a declaration remains in force the person to whom it relates will not be regarded as the holder of a qualification equivalent to a boat operator's licence.
	(3)	On cancellation of a boat operator's licence (under this or any other section of this Act), the former holder of the boat operator's licence must return the boat operator's licence to the CE.
Maximum penalty: $750.

Part 8—Hire of vessels
51—Vessels to which this Part applies
This Part applies to vessels of a class declared by regulation to be a class of vessels to which this Part applies.
52—Obligation to hold licence
A person must not carry on a business of hiring out vessels to which this Part applies unless licensed to do so under this Part.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
52A—Duration and granting of licence
	(1)	A licence under this Part remains in force for the period specified in the regulations and may be renewed in accordance with the regulations.
	(2)	The regulations may set out the circumstances in which the CE may grant or refuse to grant a licence under this Part.
53—Terms and conditions of licence
	(1)	A licence under this Part may be granted subject to such conditions as the CE thinks fit and specifies in the licence.
	(2)	The CE may, by notice in writing to the holder of a licence under this Part, vary or revoke a condition of the licence.
	(3)	A person who holds a licence under this Division must not contravene or fail to comply with a condition of the licence.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
	(4)	The CE may, by notice in writing to the licensee, cancel a licence for breach of a condition.
	(5)	On cancellation of a licence under this section, the former licensee must return the licence to the CE.
Maximum penalty: $750.

Part 9—Registration and Australian Builders Plates
Division 1—Registration of vessels
54—Application of Division
This Division applies to—
	(a)	a vessel fitted with an engine; and
	(b)	any other vessel of a class declared by regulation to be a class of vessels to which this Division applies.
55—Registration
	(1)	A vessel to which this Division applies must not be operated in the jurisdiction unless it is registered and marked in accordance with the regulations.
	(2)	If a vessel to which this Division applies is operated in the jurisdiction contrary to this section, the owner and operator of the vessel are each guilty of an offence (but it is a defence to a charge of such an offence brought against the owner for the owner to prove that the vessel was operated without the owner's consent).
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
Expiation fee: 
	(a)	if the vessel is registered but not marked in accordance with the regulations—$210;
	(b)	if the vessel is marked in accordance with the regulations but not registered—$315;
	(c)	if the vessel is neither registered nor marked in accordance with the regulations—$525.
	(3)	The CE may, subject to such conditions as the CE thinks fit, grant exemptions from the requirements of this section.

Division 4—Australian Builders Plates
64A—Application of Division
	(1)	This Division applies in respect of vessels of a class declared by regulation to be a class of vessels in respect of which an Australian Builders Plate is required.
	(2)	Nothing in this Division affects a provision under this Act requiring—
	(a)	the operator of a vessel to ensure that the number of persons carried on the vessel does not exceed the number stated on a compliance plate affixed to the vessel or set out in the regulations (as the case may require); or
	(b)	a compliance plate to be affixed to a vessel.
64B—Certain vessels not to be sold without Australian Builders Plate affixed etc
	(1)	A person must not, without the approval of the CE, sell or supply a vessel to which this Division applies unless—
	(a)	an Australian Builders Plate is affixed to the vessel in accordance with the regulations; and
	(b)	the information contained on the Australian Builders Plate is correct at the time of the sale or supply.
Maximum penalty: $10 000.
	(2)	This section does not apply in the case of the sale or supply of a vessel—
	(a)	declared by the regulations to have been constructed before the commencement of this section; or
	(b)	that is the second, or a subsequent, sale or supply of the vessel (disregarding any sale or supply that is for a purpose related to the manufacture of the vessel).
	(3)	A person must not affix, or cause to be affixed, an Australian Builders Plate to a vessel if the person knows, or ought reasonably to have known, that the information contained on the plate was incorrect.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
	(4)	A person must not alter an Australian Builders Plate affixed to a vessel if the person knows, or ought reasonably to have known, that the alteration would result in the information contained on the plate being incorrect.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
	(5)	A person must not remove an Australian Builders Plate that is affixed to a vessel except—
	(a)	in order to replace it with another Australian Builders Plate; or
	(b)	with the approval of the CE.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
	(6)	A person must not deface or conceal an Australian Builders Plate that is affixed to a vessel.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
	(7)	In this section—
sell or supply includes offer for sale or supply.
64C—General defence
	(1)	It is a defence to a charge of an offence against section 64B(1) if the defendant believed on reasonable grounds that the vessel—
	(a)	was to be exported as soon as practicable after the sale of the vessel by the defendant; or
	(b)	was to be used solely for the purpose of racing in organised events (including training in, or testing of, the vessel in respect of such racing).
	(2)	It is a defence to a charge of an offence against section 64B(1), (5) or (6) if the defendant proves that the alleged offence was not committed intentionally and did not result from any failure on the part of the defendant to take reasonable care to avoid the commission of the offence.
	(3)	In this section—
Australia includes the external Territories;
exported means exported to a place outside of Australia.

Part 10—Safety
Division 1—Safety generally
65—General requirements
	(1)	A vessel must not be operated in the jurisdiction if—
	(a)	the vessel is unsafe;
	(b)	the vessel does not have the equipment or markings required by the regulations or the equipment is not in good working order;
	(c)	the vessel is overloaded or is not properly loaded in accordance with the regulations.
	(2)	If a vessel is operated in the jurisdiction contrary to subsection (1), the owner and operator are each guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $10 000.
Expiation fee: 
	(a)	if 1 or 2 items of equipment are involved—$105;
	(b)	if 3 or 4 items of equipment are involved—$210;
	(c)	if more than 4 items of equipment are involved—$315.
65A—Requirement to have emergency position indicating radio beacon
	(1)	A vessel of a class specified by the regulations must not be operated in the jurisdiction unless it is carrying an emergency position indicating radio beacon that complies with the requirements specified by the regulations.
	(2)	If a vessel is operated in the jurisdiction contrary to subsection (1), the owner and operator are each guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $10 000.
Expiation fee: $400.
66—Power to prohibit use etc of unsafe vessel
	(1)	If the CE suspects, on reasonable grounds—
	(a)	that a vessel is unsafe; or
	(b)	that a vessel does not have the equipment or markings required by this Act or the regulations or the equipment is not in good working order; or
	(c)	that a vessel is overloaded or is not properly loaded in accordance with the regulations,
the CE may, by order, do 1 or more of the following:
	(a)	prohibit the use of the vessel;
	(b)	require the vessel to be taken out of the water as soon as is reasonably practicable;
	(c)	require that the vessel not be returned to the water until any conditions specified in the order have been satisfied.
	(2)	If an order is made under this section while the vessel is under way, the vessel must be brought as soon as possible to safe anchorage or be taken as soon as possible out of the water.
	(3)	Except as provided in subsection (2), if a vessel is operated contrary to an order under subsection (1), the owner and operator of the vessel are each guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
67—Minister's power to act in an emergency
	(1)	In an emergency, the Minister may take action for the purpose of avoiding or minimising danger to human life or damage to property.
	(2)	The Minister may (for example) exercise one or more of the following powers:
	(a)	take control of a harbor or harbor facility;
	(b)	issue directions to the owner or operator of a vessel (including a direction to sink or destroy the vessel);
	(c)	issue any other directions the Minister considers appropriate in the circumstances.
	(3)	A person who—
	(a)	obstructs the Minister in the exercise of powers under this section; or
	(b)	fails to comply with a direction under this section,
is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $10 000.
	(4)	A port operating agreement may contain provisions governing the exercise of the Minister's powers under this section in relation to the port.
	(5)	This section applies to, or in relation to, an excluded vessel.

Division 2—CE may require survey
68—CE may require survey
	(1)	If the CE is of the opinion that there are reasonable grounds to suspect that a vessel may be unsafe, that a vessel does not have the equipment or markings required by the regulations or that its equipment may not be in good working order, the CE may, by notice in writing to the owner of the vessel, require the owner to obtain a certificate from a surveyor accredited or otherwise recognised under the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law certifying that—
	(a)	the vessel is safe; and
	(b)	the vessel has the equipment and markings required by this Act and the regulations and the equipment is in good working order.
	(2)	A notice under this section may prohibit the use of the vessel until the certificate is obtained.
	(3)	A person who—
	(a)	fails without reasonable excuse to obtain a certificate of survey within the time allowed by a notice under this section; or
	(b)	uses a vessel contrary to a notice under this section,
is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.

Division 3—Operation of vessels
69—Careless operation of a vessel
	(1)	A person who operates a vessel without due care for the safety of any person or property is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: 
	(a)	for an aggravated offence—12 months imprisonment; or
	(b)	for any other offence—$5 000.
	(2)	For the purposes of this section, an aggravated offence is—
	(a)	an offence that caused the death of, or serious harm to, a person; or
	(b)	an offence committed in any of the following circumstances:
	(i)	the offender committed the offence while there was present in the offender's blood a concentration of .08 grams or more of alcohol in 100 millilitres of blood;
	(ii)	the offender was, at the time of the offence, operating the vessel in contravention of section 70(1).
	(3)	If a person is charged with an aggravated offence against this section, the circumstances alleged to aggravate the offence must be stated in the instrument of charge.
	(4)	In this section—
serious harm means—
	(a)	harm that endangers, or is likely to endanger, a person's life; or
	(b)	harm that consists of, or is likely to result in, loss of, or serious and protracted impairment of, a part of the body or a physical or mental function; or
	(c)	harm that consists of, or is likely to result in, serious disfigurement.
69A—Dangerous operation of a vessel
A person who operates a vessel at a dangerous speed or in a dangerous manner is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years.

Division 4—Alcohol and other drugs
70—Alcohol and other drugs
	(1)	If—
	(a)	a person operates a vessel or is a member of the crew of a vessel who is, or ought to be, engaged in duties affecting the safe navigation, operation or use of the vessel; and
	(b)	that person is so much under the influence of intoxicating liquor or a drug as to be incapable of exercising effective control of the vessel or of effectively discharging the duties that the person is or ought to be performing (as the case requires),
that person is guilty of an offence.
Penalty: 
	(a)	for a first offence—
	(i)	a fine of not less than $1 100 and not more than $1 600; or
	(ii)	imprisonment for not more than 3 months;
	(b)	for a subsequent offence—
	(i)	a fine of not less than $1 900 and not more than $2 900; or
	(ii)	imprisonment for not more than 6 months.
	(2)	If—
	(a)	a person operates a vessel or is a member of the crew of a vessel who is, or ought to be, engaged in duties affecting the safe navigation, operation or use of the vessel; and
	(b)	the prescribed concentration of alcohol is present in the blood of that person,
that person is guilty of an offence.
Penalty: 
	(a)	for a first offence—
	(i)	if the offence is a category 1 offence—$1 100;
	(ii)	if the offence is a category 2 offence—a fine of not less than $900 and not more than $1 300;
	(iii)	if the offence is a category 3 offence—a fine of not less than $1 100 and not more than $1 600;
	(b)	for a second offence—
	(i)	if the offence is a category 1 offence—$1 100;
	(ii)	if the offence is a category 2 offence—a fine of not less than $1 100 and not more than $1 600;
	(iii)	if the offence is a category 3 offence—a fine of not less than $1 600 and not more than $2 400;
	(c)	for a subsequent offence—
	(i)	if the offence is a category 1 offence—$1 100;
	(ii)	if the offence is a category 2 offence—a fine of not less than $1 500 and not more than $2 200;
	(iii)	if the offence is a category 3 offence—a fine of not less than $1 900 and not more than $2 900.
	(3)	If—
	(a)	a person operates a vessel or is a member of the crew of a vessel who is, or ought to be, engaged in duties affecting the safe navigation, operation or use of the vessel; and
	(b)	a prescribed drug is present in the oral fluid or blood of that person,
that person is guilty of an offence.
Penalty: 
	(a)	for a first offence—a fine of not less than $900 and not more than $1 300;
	(b)	for a second offence—a fine of not less than $1 100 and not more than $1 600;
	(c)	for a third or subsequent offence—a fine of not less than $1 500 and not more than $2 200.
	(3a)	Subject to subsection (3b), it is a defence to a charge of an offence against subsection (3) if the defendant proves that the defendant did not knowingly consume the prescribed drug present in the defendant's oral fluid or blood.
	(3b)	Subsection (3a) does not apply if the defendant consumed the prescribed drug believing that the defendant was consuming a substance unlawfully but was mistaken as to, unaware of or indifferent to the identity of the prescribed drug.
	(4)	In determining whether an offence is a first, second or subsequent offence for the purposes of this section, any previous prescribed alcohol or drug offence for which the defendant has been convicted will be taken into account, but only if the previous offence was committed within the period of 5 years immediately preceding the date on which the offence under consideration was committed.
71—Authorised person may require alcotest or breath analysis
	(1)	An authorised person may require—
	(a)	a person who is operating a vessel or who has operated a vessel; or
	(b)	a person who is or was a member of the crew of a vessel that is being operated or has been operated, and who is or was, or ought to be or to have been engaged in duties affecting the safe navigation, operation or use of the vessel,
to submit to an alcotest or a breath analysis, or both.
	(2)	An authorised person may direct a person who is apparently in charge of a vessel to stop the vessel and may give other reasonable directions for the purpose of making a requirement under this section that a person submit to an alcotest or a breath analysis.
	(3)	A person must forthwith comply with a direction under subsection (2).
Maximum penalty: $2 900.
	(4)	An alcotest or a breath analysis to which a person has been required to submit under this section may not be commenced more than 8 hours after—
	(a)	the person ceased to operate a vessel; or
	(b)	the person was a member of the crew of a vessel who was, or ought to have been, engaged in duties affecting the safe navigation, operation or use of the vessel.
	(5)	The performance of an alcotest or a breath analysis that has been required under this section commences when a direction is first given by an authorised person that the person concerned exhale into the alcotest apparatus or breath analysing instrument to be used for the alcotest or breath analysis.
	(6)	A breath analysis may only be conducted by a person authorised by the Commissioner of Police to operate a breath analysing instrument.
	(7)	The regulations may prescribe the manner in which an alcotest or breath analysis is to be conducted and may, for example, require that more than 1 sample of breath is to be provided for testing or analysis and, in such a case, specify which reading of the apparatus or instrument will be taken to be the result of the alcotest or breath analysis for the purposes of this Division and any other Act.
	(8)	A person required under this section to submit to an alcotest or a breath analysis must not refuse or fail to comply with all reasonable directions of an authorised person in relation to the requirement and, in particular, must not refuse or fail to exhale into the apparatus by which the alcotest or breath analysis is conducted in accordance with the directions of the authorised person.
Penalty: 
	(a)	for a first offence—a fine of not less than $1 100 and not more than $1 600;
	(b)	for a subsequent offence—a fine of not less than $1 900 and not more than $2 900.
	(9)	It is a defence to a prosecution under subsection (8) that—
	(a)	the requirement or direction to which the prosecution relates was not lawfully made; or
	(b)	the person was not allowed the opportunity to comply with the requirement or direction after having been given the prescribed oral advice in relation to—
	(i)	the consequences of refusing or failing to comply with the requirement or direction; and
	(ii)	the person's right to request the taking of a blood sample under subsection (10); or
	(c)	there was, in the circumstances of the case, good reason for the defendant to refuse or fail to comply with the requirement or direction.
	(10)	If a person fails to comply with the requirement or direction under this section by reason of some physical or medical condition of the person and forthwith makes a request of an authorised person that a sample of the person's blood be taken by a medical practitioner or registered nurse, an authorised person must do all things reasonably necessary to facilitate the taking of a sample of the person's blood—
	(a)	by a medical practitioner or registered nurse nominated by the person; or
	(b)	if—
	(i)	it becomes apparent to the authorised person that there is no reasonable likelihood that a medical practitioner or registered nurse nominated by the person will be available to take the sample within 1 hour of the time of the request at some place not more than 10 kilometres distant from the place of the request; or
	(ii)	the person does not nominate a particular medical practitioner or registered nurse,
by any medical practitioner or registered nurse who is available to take the sample.
	(11)	A person is not entitled to refuse or fail to comply with a requirement or direction under this section on the ground that—
	(a)	the person would, or might, by complying with that requirement or direction, furnish evidence that could be used against the person; or
	(b)	the person consumed alcohol after the person last operated a vessel or attempted to put a vessel in motion and before the requirement was made or the direction was given.
	(12)	A person may not raise a defence that the person had good cause for a refusal or failure to comply with a requirement or direction under this section by reason of some physical or medical condition of the person unless—
	(a)	a sample of the person's blood was taken in accordance with subsection (10); or
	(b)	the person made a request as referred to in that subsection, but—
	(i)	an authorised person failed to facilitate the taking of a sample of the person's blood as required by that subsection; or
	(ii)	a medical practitioner or registered nurse was not reasonably available for the purpose of taking such a sample; or
	(c)	the taking of a sample of a person's blood in accordance with subsection (10) was not possible or reasonably advisable or practicable in the circumstances by reason of some physical or medical condition of the person.
	(13)	In determining whether an offence is a first or subsequent offence for the purposes of this section, any previous prescribed alcohol or drug offence for which the defendant has been convicted will be taken into account, but only if the previous offence was committed within the period of 5 years immediately preceding the date on which the offence under consideration was committed.
	(14)	If a person—
	(a)	refuses or fails to comply with a direction under this section; or
	(b)	submits to an alcotest and the alcotest indicates that the prescribed concentration of alcohol may be present in the blood of the person,
there will be reasonable ground to suspect that the prescribed concentration of alcohol is present in the person's blood for the purposes of the exercise of any power conferred on a police officer (including a power of arrest) to prevent the person committing an offence by operating a vessel in contravention of this Division.
	(15)	Subsection (14) does not limit the circumstances in which such a power may otherwise be exercised by a police officer under this or any other Act.
72—Authorised person may require drug screening test, oral fluid analysis and blood test
	(1)	If a person has submitted to an alcotest or a breath analysis as a result of a requirement under section 71, an authorised person may require the person to submit to a drug screening test.
	(2)	If—
	(a)	a person has submitted to a drug screening test as a result of a requirement under subsection (1) and the drug screening test indicates the presence of a prescribed drug in the person's oral fluid; or
	(b)	a person has submitted to an alcotest or breath analysis as a result of a requirement under section 71(1) that was made in prescribed circumstances,
an authorised person may require the person to submit to an oral fluid analysis or a blood test.
	(3)	If a person submits to an oral fluid analysis in compliance with a requirement made under subsection (2) but the person is unable to produce sufficient oral fluid for a sample to be taken, an authorised person may require that the person submit to a blood test.
	(4)	An authorised person may give reasonable directions for the purpose of making a requirement under this section that a person submit to a drug screening test, oral fluid analysis or blood test.
	(5)	A person must forthwith comply with a direction under subsection (4).
Maximum penalty: $2 900.
	(6)	A drug screening test, oral fluid analysis or blood test to which a person has been required to submit under this section may not be commenced more than 8 hours after—
	(a)	the person ceased to operate a vessel; or
	(b)	the person was a member of the crew of a vessel who was, or ought to have been, engaged in duties affecting the safe navigation, operation or use of the vessel.
	(7)	The performance of a drug screening test, oral fluid analysis or blood test that has been required under this section commences when a direction is first given by an authorised person that the person concerned provide a sample of oral fluid or blood (as the case may be) to be used for the drug screening test, oral fluid analysis or blood test.
	(8)	A drug screening test may only be conducted by—
	(a)	a police officer; or
	(b)	a person authorised by the Commissioner of Police to conduct such tests.
	(9)	The regulations may prescribe the manner in which a drug screening test, oral fluid analysis or blood test is to be conducted.
	(10)	A person required under this section to submit to a drug screening test, oral fluid analysis or blood test must not refuse or fail to comply with all reasonable directions of an authorised person in relation to the requirement and, in particular, must not refuse or fail to allow a sample of oral fluid or blood to be taken in accordance with the directions of an authorised person.
Penalty: 
	(a)	for a first offence—a fine of not less than $900 and not more than $1 300;
	(b)	for a subsequent offence—a fine of not less than $1 500 and not more than $2 200.
	(11)	It is a defence to a prosecution under subsection (10) that—
	(a)	the requirement or direction to which the prosecution relates was not lawfully made; or
	(b)	the person was not allowed the opportunity to comply with the requirement or direction after having been given the prescribed oral advice in relation to—
	(i)	the consequences of refusing or failing to comply with the requirement or direction; and
	(ii)	in the case of—
	(A)	a drug screening test or an oral fluid analysis—the person's right to request the taking of a blood sample under subsection (12); or
	(B)	a blood test—the person's right to request an oral fluid analysis under subsection (13); or
	(c)	there was, in the circumstances of the case, good cause for the refusal or failure of the defendant to comply with the requirement or direction.
	(12)	If a person of whom a requirement is made or to whom a direction is given under this section relating to a drug screening test or oral fluid analysis refuses or fails to comply with the requirement or direction by reason of some physical or medical condition of the person and forthwith makes a request of an authorised person that a sample of the person's blood be taken by a medical practitioner or registered nurse, an authorised person must do all things reasonably necessary to facilitate the taking of a sample of the person's blood—
	(a)	by a medical practitioner or registered nurse nominated by the person; or
	(b)	if—
	(i)	it becomes apparent to the authorised person that there is no reasonable likelihood that a medical practitioner or registered nurse nominated by the person will be available to take the sample within 1 hour of the time of the request at some place not more than 10 kilometres distant from the place of the request; or
	(ii)	the person does not nominate a particular medical practitioner or registered nurse,
by any medical practitioner or registered nurse who is available to take the sample.
	(13)	If a person of whom a requirement is made or to whom a direction is given under this section relating to a blood test refuses or fails to comply with the requirement or direction by reason of some physical or medical condition of the person and forthwith makes a request of an authorised person that an oral fluid analysis be conducted, an authorised person must do all things reasonably necessary to facilitate the conduct of an oral fluid analysis unless—
	(a)	a requirement or direction under this section relating to a drug screening test or oral fluid analysis has been made of, or been given to, the person; and
	(b)	—
	(i)	the person refused or failed to comply with that requirement or direction on the ground of some physical or medical condition of the person and made a request under subsection (12) for a sample of the person's blood to be taken in accordance with that subsection; or
	(ii)	the person was unable to produce sufficient oral fluid for a sample to be taken.
	(14)	A person is not entitled to refuse or fail to comply with a requirement or direction under this section on the ground that—
	(a)	the person would, or might, by complying with that requirement or direction, furnish evidence that could be used against the person; or
	(b)	the person consumed a prescribed drug after the person last operated a vessel or was on duty as a member of the crew of a vessel and before the requirement was made or the direction was given.
	(15)	A person may not raise a defence that the person had good cause for a refusal or failure to comply with a requirement or direction under this section relating to a drug screening test or oral fluid analysis by reason of some physical or medical condition of the person unless—
	(a)	a sample of the person's blood was taken in accordance with subsection (12); or
	(b)	the person made a request as referred to in subsection (12), but—
	(i)	an authorised person failed to facilitate the taking of a sample of the person's blood as required by that subsection; or
	(ii)	a medical practitioner or registered nurse was not reasonably available for the purpose of taking such a sample; or
	(c)	the taking of a sample of the person's blood in accordance with subsection (12) was not possible or reasonably advisable or practicable in the circumstances by reason of some physical or medical condition of the person.
	(16)	A person may not raise a defence that the person had good cause for a refusal or failure to comply with a requirement or direction under this section relating to a blood test by reason of some physical or medical condition of the person unless—
	(a)	an oral fluid analysis was conducted in accordance with subsection (13); or
	(b)	the person made a request as referred to in subsection (13), but an authorised person failed to facilitate the conduct of an oral fluid analysis as required by that subsection; or
	(c)	the taking of a sample of the person's oral fluid in accordance with subsection (13) was not possible or reasonably advisable or practicable in the circumstances by reason of some physical or medical condition of the person.
	(17)	In determining whether an offence is a first or subsequent offence for the purposes of this section, any previous prescribed alcohol or drug offence for which the defendant has been convicted will be taken into account, but only if the previous offence was committed within the period of 5 years immediately preceding the date on which the offence under consideration was committed.
	(18)	If a person—
	(a)	refuses or fails to comply with a requirement or direction under this section; or
	(b)	submits to a drug screening test and the drug screening test indicates the presence of a prescribed drug in the person's oral fluid,
there will be reasonable ground to suspect that a prescribed drug is present in the person's oral fluid for the purposes of the exercise of any power conferred on a police officer (including a power of arrest) to prevent the person committing an offence by operating a vessel in contravention of this Division.
	(19)	Subsection (18) does not limit the circumstances in which such a power may otherwise be exercised by a police officer under this or any other Act.
72A—Schedule 1A further regulates blood and oral fluid sample processes
Schedule 1A makes further provision regulating blood and oral fluid sample processes for the purposes of this Division.
72C—Concentration of alcohol in breath taken to indicate concentration of alcohol in blood
Where a person submits to an alcotest or a breath analysis and the alcotest apparatus or the breath analysing instrument produces a reading in terms of a number of grams of alcohol in 210 litres of the person's breath, the reading will, for the purposes of this Act, be taken to be that number of grams of alcohol in 100 millilitres of the person's blood.
73—Evidence
	(1)	Without affecting the admissibility of evidence that might be given otherwise than in pursuance of this section, evidence may be given, in any proceedings for an offence, of the concentration of alcohol indicated as being present in the blood of the defendant by a breath analysing instrument operated by a person authorised to operate the instrument by the Commissioner of Police and, if the requirements of this Act in relation to breath analysing instruments and breath analysis, including subsections (5) and (6), have been complied with, it must be presumed, in the absence of proof to the contrary, that the concentration of alcohol so indicated was present in the blood of the defendant at the time of the analysis and throughout the preceding period of 3 hours.
	(2)	No evidence can be adduced in rebuttal of the presumption created by subsection (1) except—
	(a)	evidence of the concentration of alcohol in the blood of the defendant as indicated by analysis of a sample of blood taken and dealt with in accordance with Schedule 1A or in accordance with the regulations; and
	(b)	evidence as to whether the results of analysis of the sample of blood demonstrate that the breath analysing instrument gave an exaggerated reading of the concentration of alcohol present in the blood of the defendant.
	(3)	If, in any proceedings for an offence, it is proved—
	(a)	that the defendant—
	(i)	operated a vessel; or
	(ii)	was a member of a crew of a vessel that was being operated and was or ought to have been engaged in duties affecting the safe navigation, operation or use of the vessel; and
	(b)	that a concentration of alcohol was present in the defendant's blood at the time of a breath analysis performed within the period of 3 hours immediately following the conduct referred to in paragraph (a),
it must be conclusively presumed that that concentration of alcohol was present in the defendant's blood at the time of the conduct referred to in paragraph (a).
	(4)	No evidence can be adduced as to a breath or blood alcohol reading obtained from a coin‑operated breath testing or breath analysing machine installed in a hotel or other licensed premises.
	(5)	As soon as practicable after a person has submitted to an analysis of breath by means of a breath analysing instrument, the person operating the instrument must deliver to the person whose breath has been analysed a statement in writing specifying—
	(a)	the reading produced by the breath analysing instrument; and
	(b)	the date and time of the analysis.
	(6)	If a person has submitted to an analysis of breath by means of a breath analysing instrument and the concentration of alcohol indicated as being present in the blood of that person by the instrument is the prescribed concentration of alcohol, the person operating the breath analysing instrument must immediately—
	(a)	give the person the prescribed oral advice and deliver to the person the prescribed written notice as to the operation of this Act in relation to the results of the breath analysis and as to the procedures prescribed for the taking and analysis of a sample of the person's blood; and
	(b)	at the request of the person made in accordance with the regulations, deliver an approved blood test kit to the person.
	(7)	In proceedings for an offence a certificate—
	(a)	purporting to be signed by the Minister and to certify that a person named in the certificate is an authorised person; or
	(b)	purporting to be signed by the Commissioner of Police and to certify that a person named in the certificate is authorised by the Commissioner of Police to operate breath analysing instruments; or
	(c)	purporting to be signed by an authorised person and to certify that—
	(i)	a breath analysing instrument used by the person was in proper order and was properly operated; and
	(ii)	the provisions of this Act with respect to breath analysing instruments and the manner in which an analysis of breath by means of a breath analysing instrument is to be conducted were complied with,
will be accepted, in the absence of proof to the contrary, as proof of the matters so certified.
	(8)	A certificate purporting to be signed by an authorised person and to certify that—
	(a)	a sample of oral fluid for the purposes of an oral fluid analysis was taken on a specified day and at a specified time from a person named in the certificate; and
	(b)	the provisions of this Act with respect to the taking of samples of oral fluid for such purposes were complied with,
is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matters so certified.
	(9)	A certificate purporting to be signed by an authorised person and to certify that a person named in the certificate submitted to an alcotest on a specified day and at a specified time and that the alcotest indicated that the prescribed concentration of alcohol may then have been present in the blood of that person is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matter so certified.
	(10)	Subject to subsection (22), a certificate purporting to be signed by an analyst, certifying as to the concentration of alcohol, or any drug, found in a specimen of blood identified in the certificate expressed in grams in 100 millilitres of blood is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matters so certified.
	(11)	Subject to subsection (22), in legal proceedings a certificate purporting to be signed by a person authorised under subsection (1) and to certify that—
	(a)	a person named in the certificate submitted to an analysis of breath by means of a breath analysing instrument on a day and at a time specified in the certificate; and
	(b)	the breath analysing instrument produced a reading specified in the certificate; and
	(c)	a statement in writing required by subsection (5) was delivered in accordance with that subsection,
will be accepted, in the absence of proof to the contrary, as proof of the matters so certified.
	(12)	A certificate purporting to be signed by a person authorised under subsection (1) and to certify—
	(a)	that on a date and at a time stated in the certificate, a person named in the certificate submitted to a breath analysis; and
	(b)	that the prescribed oral advice and the prescribed written notice were given and delivered to the person in accordance with subsection (6)(a); and
	(c)	that—
	(i)	the person did not make a request for an approved blood test kit in accordance with the regulations; or
	(ii)	at the request of the person, a kit that, from an examination of its markings, appeared to the person signing the certificate to be an approved blood test kit was delivered to the person in accordance with subsection (6)(b),
is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof that the requirements of subsection (6) were complied with in relation to the person.
	(13)	A prosecution for an offence will not fail because of a deficiency of a kit delivered to the defendant in purported compliance with subsection (6)(b) and the presumption under subsection (1) will apply despite such a deficiency unless it is proved—
	(a)	that the defendant delivered the kit unopened to a medical practitioner or registered nurse for use in taking a sample of the defendant's blood; and
	(b)	by evidence of the medical practitioner or registered nurse, that the medical practitioner or registered nurse was, because of a deficiency of the kit, unable to comply with the prescribed procedures governing the manner in which a sample of a person's blood must be taken and dealt with for the purposes of subsection (2).
	(14)	Subject to subsection (22), an apparently genuine document purporting to be a certificate under Schedule 1A, or a copy of such a certificate, and purporting to be signed by an authorised person, medical practitioner, registered nurse or analyst under Schedule 1A is admissible in proceedings before a court and is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matters stated in the certificate.
	(15)	If a certificate of an analyst relating to a sample of blood taken under Schedule 1A is received in evidence in proceedings before a court and states that the prescribed concentration of alcohol has been found to be present in the sample of blood to which the certificate relates, it will be presumed, in the absence of proof to the contrary, that the concentration of alcohol stated in the certificate was present in the sample when the sample was taken.
	(16)	If it is proved by the prosecution in the proceedings for an offence that a concentration of alcohol was present in the defendant's blood at the time at which a sample of blood was taken under Schedule 1A, it will be conclusively presumed that concentration of alcohol was present in the defendant's blood throughout the period of 3 hours immediately preceding the taking of the sample.
	(17)	If certificates of an authorised person and analyst, or a medical practitioner and analyst, or a registered nurse and analyst, under Schedule 1A are received as evidence in proceedings before a court and contain the same identification number for the samples of oral fluid or blood to which they relate, the certificates will be presumed, in the absence of proof to the contrary, to relate to the same sample of oral fluid or blood.
	(18)	If a certificate of an analyst relating to a sample of oral fluid or blood taken under Schedule 1A is received as evidence in proceedings before a court and states that a drug has been found to be present in the sample of oral fluid or blood to which the certificate relates, it will be presumed, in the absence of proof to the contrary, that the drug stated in the certificate was present in the sample when the sample was taken.
	(19)	If it is proved by the prosecution in proceedings for an offence that a drug was present in the defendant's oral fluid or blood at the time at which a sample of oral fluid or blood was taken under Schedule 1A, it will be conclusively presumed that the drug was present in the defendant's oral fluid or blood (as the case may require) throughout the period of 3 hours immediately preceding the taking of the sample.
	(20)	A certificate purporting to be signed by an authorised person and to certify that a person named in the certificate submitted to a drug screening test on a specified day and at a specified time and that the drug screening test indicated that a prescribed drug may then have been present in the oral fluid of the person is admissible in proceedings before a court and is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matters so certified.
	(21)	A certificate purporting to be signed by an analyst and to certify that an oral fluid analysis was properly conducted is admissible in proceedings before a court and is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matter so certified.
	(21a)	A certificate—
	(a)	purporting to be signed by the Commissioner of Police and to certify that a person appointed under Part 2 and named in the certificate is authorised by the Commissioner of Police to conduct drug screening tests; or
	(b)	purporting to be signed by a police officer or a person authorised by the Commissioner of Police to conduct drug screening tests and to certify that the apparatus used to conduct a drug screening test was in proper order and the drug screening test was properly conducted,
is admissible in proceedings before a court and is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matters so certified.
	(22)	A certificate referred to in subsection (10), (11) or (14) cannot be received as evidence in proceedings for an offence—
	(a)	unless a copy of the certificate proposed to be put in evidence at the trial of a person for the offence has, not less than 7 days before the commencement of the trial, been served on that person; or
	(b)	if the person on whom a copy of the certificate has been served has, not less than 2 days before the commencement of the trial, served written notice on the complainant or informant requiring the attendance at the trial of the person by whom the certificate was signed; or
	(c)	if the court, in its discretion, requires the person by whom the certificate was signed to attend at the trial.
73A—Breath analysis where drinking occurs after operation of vessel
	(1)	This section applies to proceedings for an offence against this Division in which the results of a breath analysis under this Division are relied on to establish the commission of the offence.
	(2)	If in proceedings to which this section applies the defendant satisfies the court—
	(a)	that the defendant consumed alcohol during the relevant period; and
	(b)	in a case where the defendant was required to submit to the breath analysis after involvement of the vessel in an accident—
	(i)	that the requirements of section 76 were complied with in relation to the accident; and
	(ii)	that alcohol was not consumed by the defendant during the relevant period while at the scene of the accident; and
	(c)	that, after taking into account the quantity of alcohol consumed by the defendant during the relevant period and its likely effect on the concentration of alcohol indicated as being present in the defendant's blood by the breath analysis, the defendant should not be found guilty of the offence charged or, in the case of an offence against section 70(2), should be found guilty of an offence of a less serious category,
the court may, despite the other provisions of this Division, find the defendant not guilty of the offence charged or guilty of an offence of a less serious category.
	(3)	In this section—
relevant period means the period—
	(a)	commencing when 3 hours have elapsed since the conduct of the defendant giving rise to the making of the requirement under section 71(1) that the defendant submit to the breath analysis; and
	(b)	ending when the performance of the breath analysis commences.
73B—Oral fluid analysis or blood test where consumption of prescribed drug occurs after operation of vessel
	(1)	This section applies to proceedings for an offence against section 70(1) or (3) in which the results of an oral fluid analysis or a blood test under section 72 are relied on to establish the commission of the offence.
	(2)	If in proceedings to which this section applies the defendant satisfies the court—
	(a)	that the defendant consumed the prescribed drug during the relevant period; and
	(b)	in a case where the defendant was required to submit to a drug screening test after involvement of the vessel in an accident—
	(i)	that the requirements of section 76 were complied with in relation to the accident; and
	(ii)	that the prescribed drug was not consumed after an authorised person first exercised powers under section 71 preliminary to the performance of the alcotest or breath analysis referred to in section 72,
the court may, despite the other provisions of this Act, find the defendant not guilty of the offence charged.
	(3)	In subsection (2)—
relevant period means the period—
	(a)	commencing when 3 hours have elapsed since the conduct of the defendant giving rise to the making of the requirement referred to in section 72 that the defendant submit to the alcotest or breath analysis; and
	(b)	ending when the performance of the oral fluid analysis or blood test (as the case may be) commences.
74—Compulsory blood tests of injured persons including water skiers
	(1)	If a vessel is involved in an accident and, within 8 hours after the accident, a person apparently over the age of 10 years who was injured in the accident attends at, or is admitted into, a hospital for the purpose of receiving treatment for that injury, it is the duty of the medical practitioner by whom that patient is attended to ensure that, as soon as practicable, a sample of that patient's blood (despite the fact that the patient may be unconscious) is taken in accordance with this section.
	(2)	If a vessel is involved in an accident and a person apparently over the age of 10 years who was injured in the accident is dead on arrival at the hospital, or dies before a sample of blood has been taken in accordance with this section and within 8 hours after admission to the hospital, it is the duty of the medical practitioner who, under Part 5 of the Coroners Act 2003, notifies the State Coroner or a police officer of the death—
	(a)	to ensure that a sample of blood from the body of the deceased is taken in accordance with this section; or
	(b)	to notify the State Coroner as soon as practicable that, in view of the circumstances in which the death of the deceased occurred, a sample of blood should be taken from the body under this section.
	(3)	A sample of blood under subsection (1) or (2) may be taken by a medical practitioner or a registered nurse.
	(4)	The State Coroner, on receiving a notification under subsection (2), may authorise and direct a pathologist to take a sample of blood from the body of the deceased in accordance with this section.
	(18)	A person who, on being requested to submit to the taking of a sample of blood under this section, refuses or fails to comply with that request and who—
	(a)	fails to assign a reason based on genuine medical grounds for that refusal or failure; or
	(b)	assigns a reason for that refusal or failure that is false or misleading; or
	(c)	makes any other false or misleading statement in response to the request,
is guilty of an offence.
Penalty: 
	(a)	for a first offence—a fine of not less than $1 100 and not more than $1 600;
	(b)	for a subsequent offence—a fine of not less than $1 900 and not more than $2 900.
	(19)	In determining whether an offence is a first or subsequent offence for the purposes of this section, any previous prescribed alcohol or drug offence for which the defendant has been convicted will be taken into account, but only if the previous offence was committed within the period of 5 years immediately preceding the date on which the offence under consideration was committed.

Part 11—Accidents
75—Casualties to be reported
	(1)	If an accident involving a vessel occurs in the jurisdiction and the accident results in loss of life or personal injury or in damage to property (except minor injury or damage excluded by regulation from the ambit of this section), the accident must be reported to the CE or an authorised person as soon as reasonably practicable but in any event within 48 hours.
	(2)	A report under subsection (1) must include such particulars as may be required by the regulations, the CE or the authorised person.
	(3)	If a report is not made as required by this section, the owner and operator of the vessel are each guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $2 500.
Expiation fee: $210.
76—Duty to give assistance and provide particulars
	(1)	If an accident involving a vessel occurs in the jurisdiction resulting in—
	(a)	loss of life or personal injury or possible loss of life or personal injury; or
	(b)	damage to a vessel or possible damage to a vessel,
a person who is in a position to do so must take any action that is reasonably practicable in the circumstances to prevent or minimise the loss, injury or damage.
Maximum penalty: 
	(a)	in the case of a person who was the operator of a vessel involved in the accident—imprisonment for 5 years;
	(b)	in any other case—$5 000.
	(2)	If an accident occurs involving a vessel, the person who was in charge of the vessel at the time of the accident must inform any person injured in the accident and the owner of any property damaged in the accident of the person's name and address and of the registration number of the vessel.
Maximum penalty: $1 250.

Part 12—Court of Marine Enquiry
Division 1—Constitution of Court
77—Constitution of Court
	(1)	The Magistrates Court is constituted the Court of Marine Enquiry for the purposes of this Act.
	(2)	The Magistrates Court, when sitting as the Court of Marine Enquiry, will sit with assessors.
	(3)	The Minister will establish a panel of expert assessors for the purposes of constituting the Court as a Court of Marine Enquiry.
	(4)	Whenever the Magistrates Court is to sit as the Court of Marine Enquiry, two assessors will be chosen in accordance with the regulations to sit with the Court.
	(5)	The function of the assessors is to assist the Court, but they do not take part in the decision of the Court.

Division 2—Enquiries into casualties
78—Enquiries into casualties
	(1)	If an accident involving a vessel occurs in the jurisdiction and the accident results in loss of life or injury or in damage to property, the Minister may refer the matter to the Court of Marine Enquiry for investigation and report.
	(2)	If such a reference is made to the Court of Marine Enquiry, the Court must enquire into the matter and report to the Minister on the cause of the accident.
	(3)	If, on such an enquiry, the Court finds that a person who holds a boat operator's licence under this Act is guilty of misconduct or incompetence, the Court may cancel the boat operator's licence.

Division 3—Enquiries into misconduct or incompetence
79—Enquiries into misconduct or incompetence
	(1)	If there is reasonable cause to believe that a particular incident involving a vessel in the jurisdiction shows the operator, or a member of the crew, of the vessel to have been guilty of misconduct or incompetence, the Minister may refer the matter to the Court of Marine Enquiry for investigation and report.
	(2)	If such a reference is made to the Court of Marine Enquiry, the Court must enquire into the matter and report to the Minister on the matter.
	(3)	If, on such an enquiry, the Court finds that a person who holds a boat operator's licence under this Act is guilty of misconduct or incompetence, the Court may cancel the boat operator's licence.

Division 4—Administrative review
80—Review of administrative decisions
	(1)	A person who is dissatisfied with a reviewable decision or determination under this Act may, within 30 days after receiving notice of the decision or determination, apply to the person by whom the decision was made for a review of the decision.
	(2)	The following decisions and determinations are reviewable:
	(a)	a decision by the Minister—
	(i)	to insist on the inclusion of a particular provision or particular provisions in a port operating agreement; or
	(ii)	not to renew a port operating agreement;
	(b)	a decision by the CE to refuse or cancel a pilot's licence or a pilotage exemption certificate, or to impose conditions on such a licence or certificate;
	(c)	a decision by the CE to refuse a boat operator's licence;
	(d)	a decision by the Minister to cancel a boat operator's licence or to disqualify a person from holding a boat operator's licence;
	(e)	a decision by the Minister to declare a qualification that is under the regulations equivalent to a boat operator's licence to be inoperative in the jurisdiction;
	(i)	a decision by the CE to prohibit use of a vessel.
	(3)	If the applicant is dissatisfied with the decision made on the review, the applicant may apply to the Tribunal under section 34 of the South Australian Civil and Administrative Tribunal Act 2013 for a review of the decision.

Part 13—Application of Navigation Act 2012 and International Conventions
81—Application of Navigation Act 2012
The regulations may apply the Navigation Act 2012 of the Commonwealth or specified provisions of that Act (subject to exclusions, adaptations and modifications set out in the regulations) to vessels in the jurisdiction or to the owners and crews of such vessels.
82—Agreement between the Commonwealth and the State
The Governor may arrange with the Governor-General of the Commonwealth—
	(a)	for the carrying out on behalf of the State of functions under this Act by officers of the Commonwealth; or
	(b)	for the carrying out on behalf of the Commonwealth of functions under the Navigation Act 2012 of the Commonwealth by officers of the State.

Part 14—Miscellaneous
83—Exemptions
	(1)	The CE may, by instrument in writing, exempt a person from specified provisions of this Act.
	(2)	An exemption under this section—
	(a)	may be granted or refused at the discretion of the CE (but an exemption cannot be granted in respect of an activity that is to take place within a port unless the port operator has first been consulted); and
	(b)	operates for a period specified in the instrument of exemption; and
	(c)	is subject to conditions specified in the instrument of exemption.
	(3)	The CE has an absolute discretion to cancel an exemption granted under this section.
84—Conduct on board vessels
	(1)	A person who behaves in an offensive or disorderly manner while on board a vessel is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $1 250.
	(2)	A person who molests a passenger or a member of the crew of a vessel is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $1 250.
	(3)	If the conduct of a person on board a vessel threatens the safety of the vessel or disrupts good order on the vessel, the person in charge of the vessel, or a person acting on the authority of the person in charge of the vessel, may exercise reasonable force to restrain that person.
85—Unlawful use of vessels
A person who operates or interferes with a vessel without the owner's consent and without any other lawful authority or excuse is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $1 250.
87—Evidentiary provision
	(1)	In any legal proceedings—
	(a)	a certificate apparently signed by the Minister or the CE as to a delegation of powers under this Act is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matter certified;
	(b)	a certificate apparently signed by an authorised person that a place referred to in the certificate is within the jurisdiction is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the fact so certified;
	(c)	a certificate apparently signed by the CE or a delegate of the CE certifying that, as at a date specified in the certificate, a person named in the certificate held or did not hold a licence, certificate, or exemption under this Act of a kind referred to in the certificate is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matter so certified;
	(d)	a certificate apparently signed by the CE or a delegate of the CE certifying that, as at a date specified in the certificate, a vessel referred to in the certificate was or was not registered under this Act is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matter so certified;
	(e)	a certificate apparently signed by the CE or a delegate of the CE certifying that, as at a date specified in the certificate, a certificate of survey or loadline certificate issued under the Act before the commencement of the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law (Application) Act 2013 was or was not in force in respect of a vessel is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matter so certified;
	(f)	a certificate apparently signed by the CE or a delegate of the CE, as to the engine capacity or power of a specified vessel is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matter so specified;
	(g)	a certificate apparently signed by the CE or a delegate of the CE to the effect that a specified document had not been received by the CE or the department on or before a specified date is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof that the document had not been lodged or given on or before that day;
	(h)	a certificate apparently signed by the CE or a delegate of the CE certifying an approval or lack of approval under this Act is, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matter certified.
	(2)	In proceedings for an offence against this Act, an allegation in an information that a specified person is or was the owner, the master or the operator of a vessel will be accepted, in the absence of proof to the contrary, as proof of the matter so alleged.
89—Officers' liability
	(1)	The Crown, the Minister or the CE incurs no civil liability in consequence of—
	(a)	the issue of any licence, certificate, exemption or consent under this Act; or
	(b)	any act or omission with regard to the establishment, positioning or operation of navigational aids.
	(2)	An authorised person incurs no civil liability under this Act for an honest act or omission in the exercise or purported exercise of powers under this Act.
	(3)	A liability that would, but for subsection (2), attach to an authorised person attaches instead—
	(a)	if the authorised person is an officer or employee of a port operator—to the port operator; or
	(b)	in any other case—to the Minister.
	(4)	A port management officer (other than an authorised person) incurs no civil liability for an honest act or omission in the exercise or purported exercise of powers under this Act.
	(5)	Any liability that would, but for subsection (4), attach to a port management officer attaches instead to the port operator that appointed the officer.
90—Fees and charges to be paid into separate fund
	(1)	All fees and charges recovered under this Act in relation to vessels (other than fees and charges recovered under Part 5) must be paid into a separate fund.
	(2)	That fund is to be applied to defray the costs of administering and enforcing this Act.
90AA—Facilities levy
	(1)	This section applies to all vessels (other than a vessel, or vessels of a class, declared by the regulations to be exempt from operation of this section).
	(2)	A levy (the facilities levy) is imposed for the purpose of providing a source of revenue to establish, maintain and improve facilities used by vessels in this State.
	(3)	The facilities levy is payable by the owner of a vessel to which this section applies—
	(a)	in the case of a vessel that is required to be registered under this Act—on registration of the vessel; or
	(b)	in any other case—on or before the date fixed by the CE for the purposes of this subsection.
	(4)	If 2 or more persons own a vessel, the owners are jointly and severally liable for the facilities levy in respect of the vessel.
	(5)	The amount of the facilities levy is to be fixed by the regulations, and may vary according to—
	(a)	the length of the vessel; or
	(b)	the use of the vessel; or
	(c)	any other prescribed factor.
	(6)	The CE may recover the amount of an unpaid facilities levy as a debt from a person liable to pay the amount under this section.
	(7)	If 2 or more persons are jointly or severally liable to pay a facilities levy, the CE may recover the whole of the levy from them, or any of them, or any 1 of them.
	(8)	A certificate of registration will not be issued for a vessel until any levy payable under this section is paid.
90A—Facilities Fund
	(1)	The Facilities Fund is established.
	(2)	The Fund must be kept as directed by the Treasurer.
	(3)	The Fund is to consist of—
	(a)	facilities levies payable under section 90AA; and
	(b)	income from investment of money belonging to the Fund.
	(5)	The Minister may, with the approval of the Treasurer, invest any of the money belonging to the Fund that is not immediately required for the purposes of the Fund in such manner as is approved by the Treasurer.
	(6)	The Fund may be applied by the Minister towards—
	(a)	establishing, maintaining and improving facilities for use in connection with vessels; and
	(b)	the payment of expenses of administering the Fund.
91—Regulations and fee notices
	(1)	The Governor may make such regulations as are contemplated by, or necessary or expedient for the purposes of, this Act.
	(2)	Without limiting the generality of subsection (1), those regulations may make provision for or relating to—
	(a)	exemptions (conditional or unconditional) from specified provisions of this Act; and
	(b)	fees and charges in respect of any matter under this Act and their payment, recovery or waiver; and
	(c)	fines, not exceeding $5 000, for offences against the regulations; and
	(d)	expiation fees for alleged offences against the regulations; and
	(e)	facilitation of proof of the commission of offences against the regulations.
	(3)	The regulations may—
	(a)	be of general application or vary in their application according to prescribed factors;
	(b)	provide that a matter or thing in respect of which regulations may be made is to be determined according to the discretion of the Minister, the CE or other specified person or body;
	(c)	make provisions of a saving or transitional nature consequent upon—
	(i)	the enactment of, or amendments to, the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law Act 2012 of the Commonwealth or the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law;
	(ii)	the making of, or variations to, the regulations made under the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law Act 2012 of the Commonwealth or the Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law.
	(4)	The regulations may refer to or incorporate, wholly or partially and with or without modification, a code, standard or other document prepared or published by a prescribed body, either as in force at the time the regulations are made or as in force from time to time.
	(5)	If a code, standard or other document is referred to or incorporated in the regulations—
	(a)	a copy of the code, standard or other document must be kept available for public inspection, without charge and during ordinary office hours, at an office or offices specified in the regulations; and
	(b)	evidence of the contents of the code, standard or other document may be given in any legal proceedings by production of a document apparently certified by the Minister to be a true copy of the code, standard or other document.
	(6)	The Minister may prescribe fees for the purposes of this Act by fee notice under the Legislation (Fees) Act 2019.

Schedule 1—Harbors
1—Harbors to which this Act applies
	(1)	This Act applies to the following harbors:
American River
Ardrossan
Beachport and Southend
Cape Jaffa
Cape Jervis
Coffin Bay
Cowell (Franklin Harbor)
Kingscote
Kingston SE
Klein Point
Penneshaw
Point Turton
Port Adelaide
Port Augusta
Port Bonython
Port Broughton
Port Giles
Port MacDonnell
Port Pirie
Port Lincoln
Port Stanvac
Port Wakefield
Rapid Bay
Robe
Streaky Bay
Thevenard
Venus Bay
Victor Harbor
Vivonne Bay
Wallaroo
Whyalla
	(2)	Regulations may be made under this Act defining the boundaries to any of the harbors referred to above.

Schedule 1A—Blood and oral fluid sample processes
Part 1—Preliminary
1—Interpretation
In this Schedule—
approved courier means a person approved by the Commissioner of Police under the Road Traffic Act 1961 as a courier for the purposes of Schedule 1 of that Act.
Part 2—Processes relating to blood samples under Part 10 Division 4
2—Blood sample processes generally
The following provisions apply where a sample of blood is taken under Part 10 Division 4:
	(a)	a medical practitioner or registered nurse by whom a sample of blood is taken must—
	(i)	place the sample of blood, in approximately equal proportions, in 2 separate containers marked with an identification number distinguishing the sample from other samples of blood and seal the containers; and
	(ii)	give to the person from whom the sample was taken, or (in the case of a sample taken under section 74) leave with the person's personal effects at the hospital, a notice in writing—
	(A)	advising that the sample has been taken under the relevant section; and
	(B)	advising that a container containing part of the sample and marked with the identification number specified in the notice will be available for collection by or on behalf of the person at a specified place; and
	(C)	containing any other information prescribed by the regulations; and
	(iii)	complete and sign a certificate containing the information required under paragraph (d); and
	(iv)	make the containers and the certificate available to a police officer;
	(b)	each container must contain a sufficient quantity of blood to enable an analysis to be made of the concentration of alcohol present in the blood or of the presence of a prescribed drug in the blood;
	(c)	it is the duty of the medical practitioner or registered nurse by whom the sample is taken to take such measures as are reasonably practicable in the circumstances to ensure that the blood is not adulterated and does not deteriorate so as to prevent a proper analysis of the concentration of alcohol present in the blood, or the presence of a prescribed drug in the blood;
	(d)	the certificate referred to in paragraph (a) must state—
	(i)	the identification number of the sample marked on the containers referred to in that paragraph; and
	(ii)	the name and address of the person from whom the sample was taken; and
	(iii)	the name of the medical practitioner or registered nurse by whom the sample was taken; and
	(iv)	the date, time and place at which the sample was taken; and
	(v)	that the medical practitioner or registered nurse gave the notice referred to in that paragraph to the person from whom the sample was taken, or, as the case may be, left the notice with the person's personal effects;
	(e)	one of the containers containing the sample must—
	(i)	as soon as reasonably practicable be taken by a police officer or an approved courier to the place specified in the notice given to the person or left with the person's personal effects under paragraph (a); and
	(ii)	be kept available at that place for collection by or on behalf of the person for the period prescribed by the regulations;
	(f)	after analysis of the sample in a container made available to a police officer in accordance with paragraph (a), the analyst who performed or supervised the analysis must sign a certificate containing the following information:
	(i)	the identification number of the sample marked on the container;
	(ii)	the name and professional qualifications of the analyst;
	(iii)	the date on which the sample was received in the laboratory in which the analysis was performed;
	(iv)	the concentration of alcohol or other drug found to be present in the blood;
	(v)	any factors relating to the sample or the analysis that might, in the opinion of the analyst, adversely affect the accuracy or validity of the analysis;
	(vi)	any other information relating to the sample or analysis or both that the analyst thinks fit to include;
	(g)	on completion of an analysis of a sample—
	(i)	the certificate of the medical practitioner or registered nurse by whom the sample was taken and the certificate of the analyst who performed or supervised the analysis must be retained on behalf of—
	(A)	the Minister; and
	(B)	the medical practitioner or registered nurse by whom the sample was taken; and
	(ii)	copies of the certificates referred to in paragraph (g)(i) must be sent to—
	(A)	the Commissioner of Police; and
	(B)	the person from whom the sample was taken or, if the person is dead, a relative or personal representative of the deceased;
	(h)	if the whereabouts of the person from whom the sample is taken, or (that person being dead) the identity or whereabouts of a relative or personal representative of the deceased, is unknown, there is no obligation to comply with paragraph (g)(ii)(B) but copies of the certificates must, on application made within 3 years after completion of the analysis, be furnished to any person to whom they should, but for this paragraph, have been sent.
4—Police officer to be present when blood sample taken
The taking of a sample of blood under section 71(10) or 72(2), (3) or (12) must be in the presence of a police officer.
5—Cost of blood tests under certain sections
The taking of a sample of blood under section 71(10), 72(12) or 74 must be at the expense of the Crown.
6—Provisions relating to medical practitioners etc
	(1)	No proceedings lie against a medical practitioner or registered nurse in respect of anything done in good faith and in compliance, or purported compliance, with the provisions of this Act.
	(2)	A medical practitioner or registered nurse must not take a sample of a person's blood under this Act if, in the opinion of the medical practitioner or registered nurse, it would be injurious to the medical condition of the person to do so.
	(3)	A medical practitioner or registered nurse is not obliged to take a sample of a person's blood under this Act if the person objects to the taking of the sample of blood and persists in that objection after the medical practitioner or registered nurse has informed the person that, unless the objection is made on genuine medical grounds, it may constitute an offence against this Act.
	(4)	A medical practitioner who fails, without reasonable excuse, to comply with a provision of, or to perform any duty arising under, section 74 is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty: $5 000.
	(5)	No proceedings can be commenced against a medical practitioner for an offence against subclause (4) unless those proceedings have been authorised by the Attorney‑General.
	(6)	An apparently genuine document purporting to be signed by the Attorney‑General and to authorise proceedings against a medical practitioner for an offence under subclause (4) must, in the absence of proof to the contrary, be accepted by any court as proof that those proceedings have been authorised by the Attorney‑General.
Part 3—Processes relating to oral fluid samples under section 72
7—Oral fluid sample processes
The following provisions apply where a sample of oral fluid is taken under section 72(2):
	(a)	the police officer who takes a sample of oral fluid for the purposes of an oral fluid analysis must—
	(i)	place the sample of oral fluid (and any reagent or other substance required by the regulations to be added to the sample) in approximately equal proportions, in 2 separate containers marked with an identification number distinguishing the sample from other samples of oral fluid and seal the containers; and
	(ii)	give to the person from whom the sample was taken a notice in writing—
	(A)	advising that the sample has been taken under section 72(2); and
	(B)	advising that a container containing part of the sample and marked with the identification number specified in the notice will be available for collection by or on behalf of the person at a specified place; and
	(C)	containing any other information prescribed by the regulations; and
	(iii)	complete and sign a certificate containing the information required under paragraph (d);
	(b)	each container must contain a sufficient quantity of oral fluid to enable an analysis to be made of the presence of a prescribed drug in the oral fluid;
	(c)	it is the duty of the police officer who takes the sample of oral fluid for the purposes of the oral fluid analysis to take such measures as are reasonably practicable in the circumstances to ensure that the sample is not adulterated (other than as required under paragraph (a)) and does not deteriorate so as to prevent a proper analysis of the presence of a prescribed drug in the oral fluid;
	(d)	the certificate referred to in paragraph (a) must state—
	(i)	the identification number of the sample marked on the containers referred to in that paragraph; and
	(ii)	the name and address of the person from whom the sample was taken; and
	(iii)	the identification number of the police officer by whom the sample was taken; and
	(iv)	the date, time and place at which the sample was taken; and
	(v)	that the police officer gave the notice referred to in that paragraph to the person from whom the sample was taken;
	(e)	one of the containers containing the sample must—
	(i)	as soon as reasonably practicable be taken by a police officer or an approved courier to the place specified in the notice given to the person under paragraph (a); and
	(ii)	be kept available at that place for collection by or on behalf of the person for the period prescribed by the regulations;
	(f)	after analysis of the sample in a container referred to in paragraph (a), the analyst who performed or supervised the analysis must sign a certificate containing the following information:
	(i)	the identification number of the sample marked on the container;
	(ii)	the name and professional qualifications of the analyst;
	(iii)	the date on which the sample was received in the laboratory in which the analysis was performed;
	(iv)	the information required by the regulations in relation to any prescribed drug or drugs found to be present in the sample;
	(v)	any factors relating to the sample or the analysis that might, in the opinion of the analyst, adversely affect the accuracy or validity of the analysis;
	(vi)	any other information relating to the sample or analysis or both that the analyst thinks fit to include;
	(g)	on completion of an analysis of a sample, the certificate of the analyst who performed or supervised the analysis must be retained on behalf of the Minister and copies of the certificates must be sent—
	(i)	to the Commissioner of Police; and
	(ii)	to the person from whom the sample was taken or, if the person is dead, a relative or personal representative of the deceased;
	(h)	if the whereabouts of the person from whom the sample is taken, or (that person being dead) the identity or whereabouts of a relative or personal representative of the deceased is unknown, there is no obligation to comply with paragraph (g)(ii) but copies of the certificates must, on application made within 3 years after completion of the analysis, be furnished to any person to whom they should, but for this paragraph, have been sent.
Part 4—Other provisions relating to blood or oral fluid samples under Part 10 Division 4
8—Blood or oral fluid sample or results of analysis etc not to be used for other purposes
	(1)	A sample of blood or oral fluid taken under Part 10 Division 4 (and any other forensic material taken incidentally during a drug screening test, oral fluid analysis or blood test) must not be used for a purpose other than that contemplated by this Act.
	(2)	The results of a drug screening test, oral fluid analysis or blood test under Part 10 Division 4, an admission or statement made by a person relating to such a drug screening test, oral fluid analysis or blood test, or any evidence taken in proceedings relating to such a drug screening test, oral fluid analysis or blood test (or transcript of such evidence)—
	(a)	will not be admissible in evidence against the person in any proceedings, other than proceedings for—
	(i)	an offence against this Act; or
	(ii)	an offence involving the operation or crewing of a vessel; or
	(iii)	an offence against the Controlled Substances Act 1984; and
	(b)	may not be relied on as grounds for the exercise of any search power or the obtaining of any search warrant.
9—Destruction of blood or oral fluid sample taken under Part 10 Division 4
The Commissioner of Police must ensure that a sample of blood or oral fluid taken under Part 10 Division 4 (and any other forensic material taken incidentally during a drug screening test, oral fluid analysis or blood test) is destroyed—
	(a)	if proceedings for an offence of a kind referred to in clause 8(2)(a) based on evidence of the results of analysis of the sample are not commenced within the period allowed; or
	(b)	if such proceedings are commenced within the period allowed—when the proceedings (including any proceedings on appeal) are finally determined or discontinued.

Schedule 2—Transitional provisions
2—Transitional provisions
	(1)	A certificate of survey in force under the Marine Act 1936 immediately before the commencement of this Act continues in force subject to this Act as if it were a certificate of survey issued under this Act.
	(2)	A certificate of competency in force under the Marine Act 1936, or a boat operator's licence in force under the Boating Act 1974, immediately before the commencement of this Act, continues in force subject to this Act as if it were a certificate of competency issued under this Act.
	(3)	If the Governor had withdrawn land from the Minister under section 64(4) of the Harbors Act 1936, the withdrawal remains in effect for the purposes of this Act unless revoked by the Governor.
	(4)	A loadline certificate in force under the Marine Act 1936 immediately before the commencement of this Act continues in force subject to this Act as if it were a loadline certificate issued under this Act.
	(5)	A special permit to operate a vessel in force under the Boating Act 1974 immediately before the commencement of this Act continues in force subject to this Act as if it were a special permit issued under this Act.
	(6)	A licence in force under Part 3A of the Boating Act 1974 immediately before the commencement of this Act continues in force subject to this Act as if it were a licence issued under Part 8 and as if the conditions of the licence had been imposed under Part 8.
	(7)	The registration of a vessel in force under the Boating Act 1974 immediately before the commencement of this Act continues in force subject to this Act as if it were registration of the vessel under this Act.
	(8)	By-laws in force under the Harbors Act 1936 immediately before the commencement of this Act continue in force subject to this Act as if they were made under this Act.
3—Vesting of land etc held in name of Minister of Marine
	(1)	All land vested in fee simple in the Minister of Marine1 immediately before the commencement of this Act will be taken to have vested in fee simple, on the commencement of this Act, in the Minister responsible for the administration of this Act.
	(2)	All other interests, rights and liabilities of the Minister of Marine in relation to land immediately before the commencement of this Act, will be taken to have become, on the commencement of this Act, interests, rights and liabilities of the Minister responsible for the administration of this Act.
	(3)	A proclamation in force immediately before the commencement of this Act under which dedicated land was placed under the care, control and management of the Minister of Marine will, on the commencement of this Act, be taken to have been varied by replacing references to the Minister of Marine with references to the Minister responsible for the administration of this Act.
	(4)	The Registrar-General will take such action for or in connection with—
	(a)	the issue, alteration, correction or cancellation of certificates or other documents of title; or
	(b)	the making, recording, alteration, correction or cancellation of entries or endorsements in the Register Books,
as may be necessary or expedient for the purposes of giving effect to this clause.
Note—
1	The Minister of Marine was a body corporate established under the provisions of the repealed Harbors Act 1936.

Legislative history
Notes
	•	This version is comprised of the following:
Part 1	12.12.2022	
Part 2	20.3.2018	
Part 3	1.7.2013	
Part 4	1.7.2013	
Part 5	4.10.2018	
Part 5A	1.7.2013	
Part 7	20.3.2018	
Part 8	1.7.2013	
Part 9	1.7.2013	
Part 10	12.12.2022	
Part 11	20.3.2018	
Part 12	4.10.2018	
Part 13	1.7.2013	
Part 14	12.12.2022	
Schedules	12.12.2022	
	•	Amendments of this version that are uncommenced are not incorporated into the text.
	•	Please note—References in the legislation to other legislation or instruments or to titles of bodies or offices are not automatically updated as part of the program for the revision and publication of legislation and therefore may be obsolete.
	•	Earlier versions of this Act (historical versions) are listed at the end of the legislative history.
	•	For further information relating to the Act and subordinate legislation made under the Act see the Index of South Australian Statutes or www.legislation.sa.gov.au.
Legislation repealed by principal Act
The Harbors and Navigation Act 1993 repealed the following:
Boating Act 1974
Harbors Act 1936
Marine Act 1936
Principal Act and amendments
New entries appear in bold.
Year	No	Title	Assent	Commencement	
1993	41	 Harbors and Navigation Act 1993	20.5.1993	24.10.1994 (Gazette 20.10.1994 p1220)	
1994	45	 Harbors and Navigation (Ports Corporation and Miscellaneous) Amendment Act 1994	2.6.1994	2.6.1994	
1995	95	 Statutes Amendment (Drink Driving) Act 1995	7.12.1995	Pt 2 (ss 4—10)—7.12.1997 (s 7(5) Acts Interpretation Act 1915)	
1996	34	 Statutes Amendment and Repeal (Common Expiation Scheme) Act 1996	2.5.1996	Sch (cl 18)—3.2.1997 (Gazette 19.12.1996 p1923)	
2000	79	 Harbors and Navigation (Miscellaneous) Amendment Act 2000	14.12.2000	2.1.2001 (Gazette 21.12.2000 p3688) except ss 6, 7 & 13—12.4.2001 (Gazette 12.4.2001 p1582)	
2000	81	 Harbors and Navigation (Control of Harbors) Amendment Act 2000	14.12.2000	25.1.2001 (Gazette 25.1.2001 p300) except ss 3(a), 4(a), 5(b), 8, 9(a), 11, 12(a) & 20—31.10.2001 (Gazette 25.10.2001 p4686)	
2001	17	 Statutes Amendment (Transport Portfolio) Act 2001	17.5.2001	Pt 2 s 4—30.10.2001 (Gazette 25.10.2001 p4687); ss 5—9—27.5.2002 (Gazette 23.5.2002 p1928)	
2002	37	 Statutes Amendment (Transport Portfolio) Act 2002	28.11.2002	Pt 3 (ss 6—9)—3.7.2003 (Gazette 3.7.2003 p2877)	
2003	8	 Statutes Amendment (Road Safety Reforms) Act 2003	12.6.2003	Pt 2 (ss 5—7)—15.12.2003 (Gazette 11.12.2003 p4431)	
2003	33	 Coroners Act 2003	31.7.2003	Sch (cl 14)—1.7.2005 (Gazette 23.6.2005 p1899) 	
2003	35	 River Murray Act 2003	31.7.2003	Sch (cl 8)—24.11.2003 (Gazette 20.11.2003 p4203)	
2005	5	 Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary Act 2005	14.4.2005	Sch 2 (cll 25—28)—1.7.2005 (Gazette 2.6.2005 p1684)	
2005	53	 Statutes Amendment (Transport Portfolio) Act 2005	27.10.2005	Pt 2 (s 4)—17.11.2005 (Gazette 17.11.2005 p3973)	
2005	81	 Statutes Amendment (Vehicle and Vessel Offences) Act 2005	8.12.2005	Pt 4 (ss 14—17)—30.7.2006 (Gazette 27.7.2006 p2400)	
2007	4	 Fisheries Management Act 2007	8.3.2007	Sch 2 (cl 5)—1.12.2007 (Gazette 15.11.2007 p4241)	
2007	23	 Harbors and Navigation (Australian Builders Plate) Amendment Act 2007	28.6.2007	4.2.2008 (Gazette 25.10.2007 p4044)	
2007	60	 Marine Parks Act 2007	29.11.2007	Sch 1 (cll 24—27)—6.11.2008 (Gazette 6.11.2008 p5055)	
2008	26	 Statutes Amendment (Transport Portfolio) Act 2008	26.6.2008	Pt 2 (s 4)—25.9.2008 (Gazette 18.9.2008 p4504)	
2009	8	 Statutes Amendment (Transport Portfolio—Alcohol and Drugs) Act 2009	12.3.2009	Pt 2 (ss 4—11)—1.2.2010 (Gazette 10.12.2009 p6169)	
2009	42	 Harbors and Navigation (Miscellaneous) Amendment Act 2009	1.10.2009	12.4.2010 (Gazette 3.12.2009 p5981)	
2011	13	 Statutes Amendment (Transport Portfolio—Penalties) Act 2011	12.5.2011	Pt 2 (ss 4—7)—30.6.2011 (Gazette 19.5.2011 p1508)	
2013	16	 Statutes Amendment (Directors' Liability) Act 2013	23.5.2013	Pt 24 (s 48)—17.6.2013 (Gazette 6.6.2013 p2498)	
2013	21	 Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law (Application) Act 2013	14.6.2013	Sch 2 (cll 3—43)—1.7.2013 (Gazette 27.6.2013 p2780)	
2017	38	 Statutes Amendment (Transport Online Transactions and Other Matters) Act 2017	10.10.2017	Sch 1 (Pt 2)—20.3.2018 (Gazette 19.12.2017 p5122)	
2017	51	 Statutes Amendment (SACAT No 2) Act 2017	28.11.2017	Pt 21 (ss 114 to 117)—4.10.2018 (Gazette 28.6.2018 p2618)	
2017	63	 Statutes Amendment (Drink and Drug Driving) Act 2017	12.12.2017	Pt 2 (ss 4, 5, 6(2), (3) & 7)—22.2.2018; s 6(1)—24.4.2018 (Gazette 13.2.2018 p732)	
2021	17	 Statutes Amendment (Transport Portfolio) Act 2021	20.5.2021	Pt 5 (ss 9 to 18)—12.12.2022 (Gazette 24.11.2022 p6688)	
2023	24	 Statutes Amendment (Serious Vehicle and Vessel Offences) Act 2023	13.7.2023	Pt 3 (s 10)—1.1.2024 (Gazette 25.10.2023 p3602)	
Provisions amended
New entries appear in bold.
Entries that relate to provisions that have been deleted appear in italics.
Provision	How varied	Commencement	
Long title	amended under Legislation Revision and Publication Act 2002	3.7.2003	
Pt 1			
s 2	omitted under Legislation Revision and Publication Act 2002	3.7.2003	
s 3	amended by 5/2005 Sch 2 (cl 25)	1.7.2005	
	amended by 60/2007 Sch 1 cl 24	6.11.2008	
s 4			
s 4(1)			
Adelaide Dolphin Sanctuary	inserted by 5/2005 Sch 2 (cl 26)	1.7.2005	
analyst	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(1)	1.2.2010	
approved blood test kit	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(1)	1.2.2010	
authorised person	amended by 8/2009 s 4(2)	1.2.2010	
boat operator's licence	inserted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(1)	1.7.2013	
breath analysis	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(3)	1.2.2010	
category 1 offence	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(3)	1.2.2010	
category 2 offence	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(3)	1.2.2010	
category 3 offence	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(3)	1.2.2010	
CE	inserted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(2)	1.7.2013	
CEO	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(2)	1.7.2013	
commercial vessel	substituted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(3)	1.7.2013	
Commonwealth Act	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(4)	1.7.2013	
the Corporation	inserted by 45/1994 s 2	2.6.1994	
	deleted by 81/2000 s 3(a)	31.10.2001	
a Corporation port	inserted by 45/1994 s 2	2.6.1994	
	deleted by 81/2000 s 3(a)	31.10.2001	
crew	substituted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(5)	1.7.2013	
department	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(6)	1.7.2013	
domestic commercial vessel	inserted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(7)	1.7.2013	
drug screening test	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(4)	1.2.2010	
excluded vessel	inserted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(8)	1.7.2013	
fishing vessel	substituted by 45/1994 s 11	2.6.1994	
	amended by 4/2007 Sch 2 cl 5	1.12.2007	
	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(9)	1.7.2013	
hospital	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(5)	1.2.2010	
key position	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(10)	1.7.2013	
marine park	inserted by 60/2007 Sch 1 cl 25	6.11.2008	
medical practitioner	inserted by 17/2021 s 9(1)	12.12.2022	
Metropolitan Adelaide	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(6)	1.2.2010	
	deleted by 17/2021 s 9(1)	12.12.2022	
operator	substituted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(11)	1.7.2013	
oral fluid	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(7)	1.2.2010	
oral fluid analysis	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(7)	1.2.2010	
	substituted by 63/2017 s 4	22.2.2018	
owner	substituted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(12)	1.7.2013	
personal watercraft	inserted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(12)	1.7.2013	
port	inserted by 81/2000 s 3(b)	25.1.2001	
port management officer	inserted by 81/2000 s 3(b)	25.1.2001	
port operator	inserted by 81/2000 s 3(b)	25.1.2001	
prescribed alcohol or drug offence	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(8)	1.2.2010	
prescribed circumstances	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(8)	1.2.2010	
	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
prescribed concentration of alcohol	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(8)	1.2.2010	
prescribed drug	inserted by 8/2009 s 4(8)	1.2.2010	
recreational vessel	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(13)	1.7.2013	
registered nurse	inserted by 17/2021 s 9(2)	12.12.2022	
Tribunal	inserted by 51/2017 s 114	4.10.2018	
vessel	substituted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 4(14)	1.7.2013	
s 6	substituted by 79/2000 s 3	2.1.2001	
s 6A	inserted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 5	1.7.2013	
Pt 2			
Pt 2 Div 1			
s 7	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 6	1.7.2013	
s 8			
s 8(2)	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
Pt 2 Div 2			
heading	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 7	1.7.2013	
s 9	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 10			
s 10(1)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
Pt 2 Div 3			
s 11			
s 11(1) and (2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
Pt 2 Div 4			
s 12			
s 12(1)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 12(1a)	inserted by 45/1994 s 3	2.6.1994	
	substituted by 81/2000 s 4(a)	31.10.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 12(1b)	inserted by 79/2000 s 4(a)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 12(2)	amended by 79/2000 s 4(b)	2.1.2001	
s 12(3)	substituted by 81/2000 s 4(b)	25.1.2001	
s 13	amended by 8/2009 s 5	1.2.2010	
	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 14			
s 14(1)	amended by 79/2000 s 5	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 8(1), (3)—(5)	1.7.2013	
	(b)(i)(D) deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 8(2)	1.7.2013	
	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 14(1a)	inserted by 37/2002 s 6	3.7.2003	
s 14(2)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
Pt 2 Div 5	inserted by 5/2005 Sch 2 (cl 27)	1.7.2005	
s 14A	substituted by 60/2007 Sch 1 cl 26	6.11.2008	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
Pt 3			
s 15			
s 15(3)	amended by 45/1994 s 4	2.6.1994	
	amended by 81/2000 s 5(a)	25.1.2001	
	(ba) deleted by 81/2000 s 5(b)	31.10.2001	
s 18A	inserted by 45/1994 s 12	2.6.1994	
s 18A(1)	substituted by 81/2000 s 6	25.1.2001	
s 18A(1a)	inserted by 81/2000 s 6	25.1.2001	
s 20			
s 20(2)	amended by 81/2000 s 7	25.1.2001	
s 21			
s 21(1)	amended by 45/1994 s 5	2.6.1994	
	amended by 81/2000 s 8	31.10.2001	
Pt 4			
s 22			
s 22(1)	s 22 amended by 45/1994 s 6	2.6.1994	
	s 22 redesignated as s 22(1) by 81/2000 s 9(b)	25.1.2001	
	amended by 81/2000 s 9(a)	31.10.2001	
s 22(2)—(4)	inserted by 81/2000 s 9(b)	25.1.2001	
s 23			
s 23(3)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 24			
s 24(1) and (5)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 25			
s 25(1a)	inserted by 81/2000 s 10(a)	25.1.2001	
s 25(2)	amended by 45/1994 s 13	2.6.1994	
s 25(2a)	inserted by 81/2000 s 10(b)	25.1.2001	
s 25(3)	substituted by 81/2000 s 10(c)	25.1.2001	
s 25(4)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 25(5)	inserted by 81/2000 s 10(d)	25.1.2001	
s 26	amended by 45/1994 s 7	2.6.1994	
	amended by 17/2001 s 4	30.10.2001	
	substituted by 81/2000 s 11	31.10.2001	
s 26(1) and (2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 26(2a)	inserted by 35/2003 Sch cl 8(a)	24.11.2003	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 26(2b)	inserted by 35/2003 Sch cl 8(a)	24.11.2003	
	substituted by 5/2005 Sch 2 (cl 28)	1.7.2005	
	substituted by 60/2007 Sch 1 cl 27	6.11.2008	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 26(2c)	inserted by 5/2005 Sch 2 (cl 28)	1.7.2005	
s 26(5)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 26(6)	inserted by 35/2003 Sch cl 8(b)	24.11.2003	
s 27			
s 27(1a)	inserted by 45/1994 s 8	2.6.1994	
	substituted by 81/2000 s 12(a)	31.10.2001	
s 27(3)	substituted by 81/2000 s 12(b)	25.1.2001	
Pt 5	heading substituted by 81/2000 s 13	25.1.2001	
Pt 5 Div 1	amended by 45/1994 s 9	2.6.1994	
	substituted by 81/2000 s 13	25.1.2001	
s 28C			
s 28C(2)	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 9	1.7.2013	
s 28F			
s 28F(5)	substituted by 51/2017 s 115	4.10.2018	
s 28F(5a)—(5c)	inserted by 51/2017 s 115	4.10.2018	
s 28F(6)	deleted by 51/2017 s 115	4.10.2018	
Pt 5 Div 2	substituted by 81/2000 s 13	25.1.2001	
s 29			
s 29(3)	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
Pt 5 Div 2A	inserted by 81/2000 s 13	25.1.2001	
s 29C			
s 29C(4)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(2)	1.7.2013	
Pt 5 Div 3	substituted by 81/2000 s 13	25.1.2001	
Pt 5 Div 4	substituted by 81/2000 s 13	25.1.2001	
s 31D			
s 31D(2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(2)	1.7.2013	
Pt 5 Div 5	heading deleted by 81/2000 s 14	25.1.2001	
Pt 5A	heading inserted by 81/2000 s 14	25.1.2001	
s 33			
s 33(1)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 33(1a)	inserted by 45/1994 s 14(a)	2.6.1994	
s 33(2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 33(3)	amended by 81/2000 s 15	25.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 33(4)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 81/2000 s 15	25.1.2001	
s 33(5)	substituted by 45/1994 s 14(b)	2.6.1994	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 33(6)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 34			
s 34(1)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 34(1a)	inserted by 45/1994 s 15(a)	2.6.1994	
s 34(2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 34(3)	amended by 81/2000 s 16	25.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 34(4)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 81/2000 s 16	25.1.2001	
s 34(4a)	inserted by 45/1994 s 15(b)	2.6.1994	
s 34(5)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 34(6)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 35			
s 35(1)	amended by 81/2000 s 17	25.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 10(1)	1.7.2013	
s 35(2)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 35(3)	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 10(2)	1.7.2013	
s 35(4)	inserted by 45/1994 s 16	2.6.1994	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 35(5)	inserted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 10(3)	1.7.2013	
Pt 6 before deletion by 21/2013			
s 38			
s 38(1) and (2)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 39A	inserted by 79/2000 s 6	12.4.2001	
s 40			
s 40(2)	amended by 79/2000 s 7(a)	12.4.2001	
s 40(2a)	inserted by 79/2000 s 7(b)	12.4.2001	
s 41			
s 41(3)	amended by 79/2000 s 8	2.1.2001	
s 42A	inserted by 79/2000 s 9	2.1.2001	
s 44			
s 44(2)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
Pt 6	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 11	1.7.2013	
Pt 7			
heading	substituted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 12	1.7.2013	
s 46	amended by 45/1994 s 17	2.6.1994	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 13(1), (2)	1.7.2013	
s 47			
s 47(1)	amended by 45/1994 s 18(a)	2.6.1994	
	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 14(1)	1.7.2013	
s 47(2)	amended by 45/1994 s 18(b)	2.6.1994	
	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 14(1)	1.7.2013	
s 47(3)	amended by 34/1996 s 4 (Sch cl 18)	3.2.1997	
	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cll 3(2), 14(2)—(6)	1.7.2013	
s 47(3a)	inserted by 37/2002 s 7	3.7.2003	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cll 3(2), 14(7)—(11)	1.7.2013	
s 47(4)	amended by 34/1996 s 4 (Sch cl 18)	3.2.1997	
	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	substituted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 14(12)	1.7.2013	
s 47(5)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 14(13)	1.7.2013	
s 47(6)	inserted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 14(14)	1.7.2013	
s 47A	inserted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 15	1.7.2013	
s 47A(2)	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 48			
s 48(1)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cll 3(1), 16(1)	1.7.2013	
s 48(2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cll 3(1), 16(2)—(5)	1.7.2013	
	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 48(3)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 16(6)	1.7.2013	
s 48(4)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 16(7)	1.7.2013	
s 48(5)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cll 3(1), 16(8)	1.7.2013	
s 49	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 17(1), (2)	1.7.2013	
	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 50			
s 50(1)	amended by 45/1994 s 19(a)	2.6.1994	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 18(1)—(5)	1.7.2013	
	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 50(2)	amended by 45/1994 s 19(b)	2.6.1994	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 18(2), (6)	1.7.2013	
	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 50(3)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 18(2), (7), (8)	1.7.2013	
Pt 8			
s 52	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(2)	1.7.2013	
s 52A	inserted by 45/1994 s 20	2.6.1994	
s 52A(2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 53			
s 53(1) and (2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 53(3)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(2)	1.7.2013	
s 53(4)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 53(5)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
Pt 9			
heading	substituted by 23/2007 s 4	4.2.2008	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 19	1.7.2013	
Pt 9 Div 1			
s 54	amended by 45/1994 s 21	2.6.1994	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 20(1), (2)	1.7.2013	
s 55			
s 55(2)	amended by 34/1996 s 4 (Sch cl 18)	3.2.1997	
	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 42/2009 s 4	12.4.2010	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cll 3(2), 21(1), (2)	1.7.2013	
s 55(3)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
Pt 9 Div 2 before deletion by 21/2013			
s 57			
s 57(3)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 57(4)	inserted by 45/1994 s 22	2.6.1994	
s 57(5)	inserted by 45/1994 s 22	2.6.1994	
	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 59			
s 59(5)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 60			
s 60(1) and (2)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
Pt 9 Div 2	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 22	1.7.2013	
Pt 9 Div 3 before deletion by 21/2013			
s 63			
s 63(5)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 64			
s 64(1) and (2)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
Pt 9 Div 3	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 22	1.7.2013	
Pt 9 Div 4	inserted by 23/2007 s 5	4.2.2008	
s 64A			
s 64A(2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 23	1.7.2013	
s 64B			
s 64B(1) and (5)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
Pt 10			
Pt 10 Div 1			
s 65			
s 65(1)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 24(1)	1.7.2013	
s 65(2)	amended by 34/1996 s 4 (Sch cl 18)	3.2.1997	
	amended by 79/2000 s 10	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 24(2), (3)	1.7.2013	
s 65A	inserted by 79/2000 s 11	2.1.2001	
s 65A(1)	amended by 26/2008 s 4	25.9.2008	
s 65A(2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 25	1.7.2013	
s 66			
s 66(1)	amended by 79/2000 s 12	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cll 3(1), 26(1), (2)	1.7.2013	
s 66(3)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 26(3)	1.7.2013	
s 67	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	substituted by 81/2000 s 18	25.1.2001	
s 67(2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 27(1)	1.7.2013	
s 67(5)	inserted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 27(2)	1.7.2013	
Pt 10 Div 2			
heading	substituted by 21/2013 s 28	1.7.2013	
s 68			
s 68(1)	amended by 79/2000 s 13	12.4.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cll 3(1), 29	1.7.2013	
s 68(3)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
Pt 10 Div 3			
s 69 before substitution by 81/2005			
s 69(1) and (2)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 69	substituted by 81/2005 s 14	30.7.2006	
s 69(1)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(2)	1.7.2013	
s 69(2)	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 69A	inserted by 81/2005 s 14	30.7.2006	
Pt 10 Div 4			
s 70			
s 70(1)	amended by 8/2009 s 6(1)	1.2.2010	
	amended by 13/2011 s 4(1)	30.6.2011	
	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 70(2)	amended by 13/2011 s 4(2)	30.6.2011	
s 70(3)	substituted by 8/2009 s 6(2)	1.2.2010	
	amended by 13/2011 s 4(3)	30.6.2011	
s 70(3a)	inserted by 8/2009 s 6(2)	1.2.2010	
	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 70(3b)	inserted by 8/2009 s 6(2)	1.2.2010	
	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 70(4)	substituted by 8/2003 s 5	15.12.2003	
	amended by 8/2009 s 6(3)	1.2.2010	
 s 71 before substitution by 8/2009			
s 71(1)	amended by 81/2005 s 15	30.7.2006	
s 71(2)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 71(3a)	inserted by 17/2001 s 5(a)	27.5.2002	
s 71(4)	substituted by 17/2001 s 5(b)	27.5.2002	
s 71(5)	substituted by 95/1995 s 4	7.12.1997	
s 71(6)	inserted by 95/1995 s 4	7.12.1997	
s 71	substituted by 8/2009 s 7	1.2.2010	
s 71(3)	amended by 13/2011 s 5(1)	30.6.2011	
s 71(8)	amended by 13/2011 s 5(2)	30.6.2011	
s 71(10)	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
	amended by 17/2021 s 10(1)	12.12.2022	
s 71(11)	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 71(12)	amended by 17/2021 s 10(2)	12.12.2022	
s 72 before substitution by 8/2009			
s 72(1)	deleted by 95/1995 s 5(a)	7.12.1997	
s 72(2)	amended by 95/1995 s 5(b)	7.12.1997	
	amended by 37/2002 s 8	3.7.2003	
s 72(3)	amended by 95/1995 s 5(c)	7.12.1997	
s 72(4)	substituted by 95/1995 s 5(d)	7.12.1997	
s 72(5)	deleted by 95/1995 s 5(d)	7.12.1997	
s 72	substituted by 8/2009 s 7	1.2.2010	
s 72(5)	amended by 13/2011 s 6(1)	30.6.2011	
s 72(8)	substituted by 63/2017 s 5(1)	22.2.2018	
s 72(10)	amended by 13/2011 s 6(2)	30.6.2011	
s 72(12)	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
	amended by 17/2021 s 11(1)	12.12.2022	
s 72(13) and (14)	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 72(15)	amended by 17/2021 s 11(2)	12.12.2022	
s 72(18)	amended by 63/2017 s 5(2)	22.2.2018	
s 72A	inserted by 95/1995 s 6	7.12.1997	
	substituted by 8/2009 s 7	1.2.2010	
s 72B before deletion by 8/2009	inserted by 95/1995 s 6	7.12.1997	
s 72B(2)			
registered nurse	substituted by 8/2003 s 6	15.12.2003	
s 72B	deleted by 8/2009 s 7	1.2.2010	
s 72C	inserted by 17/2001 s 6	27.5.2002	
s 73 before substitution by 8/2009			
s 73(1)	amended by 95/1995 s 7(a), (b)	7.12.1997	
s 73(2)	substituted by 95/1995 s 7(c)	7.12.1997	
s 73(2a)	inserted by 95/1995 s 7(c)	7.12.1997	
	substituted by 81/2005 s 16	30.7.2006	
s 73(3)	amended by 17/2001 s 7(a)	27.5.2002	
s 73(4)	amended by 95/1995 s 7(d)	7.12.1997	
s 73(5)	amended by 95/1995 s 7(e), (f)	7.12.1997	
	amended by 17/2001 s 7(b), (c)	27.5.2002	
s 73(5a)	inserted by 95/1995 s 7(g)	7.12.1997	
	amended by 17/2001 s 7(d)	27.5.2002	
s 73(6)	amended by 95/1995 s 7(h)	7.12.1997	
s 73(7) and (8)	inserted by 95/1995 s 7(i)	7.12.1997	
s 73	substituted by 8/2009 s 8	1.2.2010	
s 73(1)	amended by 17/2021 s 12(1)	12.12.2022	
s 73(3)	amended by 17/2021 s 12(2)	12.12.2022	
s 73(7)	amended by 63/2017 s 6(1)	24.4.2018	
s 73(8)	substituted by 63/2017 s 6(2)	22.2.2018	
s 73(13)	amended by 17/2021 s 12(3)	12.12.2022	
s 73(14)	amended by 17/2021 s 12(4)	12.12.2022	
s 73(16)	amended by 17/2021 s 12(5)	12.12.2022	
s 73(17)	amended by 17/2021 s 12(6)	12.12.2022	
s 73(21)	substituted by 63/2017 s 6(3)	22.2.2018	
s 73(21a)	inserted by 63/2017 s 6(3)	22.2.2018	
s 73A	inserted by 95/1995 s 8	7.12.1997	
s 73A(2)	amended by 17/2021 s 13(1)	12.12.2022	
s 73A(3)	inserted by 17/2021 s 13(2)	12.12.2022	
s 73B	inserted by 8/2009 s 9	1.2.2010	
s 73B(2)	amended by 17/2021 s 14(1)	12.12.2022	
s 73B(3)			
relevant period	substituted by 17/2021 s 14(2)	12.12.2022	
s 74			
s 74(1)	amended by 8/2009 s 10(1), (2)	1.2.2010	
	substituted by 17/2021 s 15	12.12.2022	
s 74(2)	deleted by 8/2009 s 10(3)	1.2.2010	
	inserted by 17/2021 s 15	12.12.2022	
s 74(3)	deleted by 8/2009 s 10(3)	1.2.2010	
	inserted by 17/2021 s 15	12.12.2022	
s 74(4)	amended by 33/2003 Sch (cl 14(1), (2))	1.7.2005	
	amended by 8/2009 s 10(4)	1.2.2010	
	substituted by 17/2021 s 15	12.12.2022	
s 74(5)	amended by 33/2003 Sch (cl 14(3))	1.7.2005	
	deleted by 17/2021 s 15	12.12.2022	
s 74(6)	deleted by 17/2021 s 15	12.12.2022	
s 74(7)	substituted by 95/1995 s 9(a)	7.12.1997	
	deleted by 8/2009 s 10(5)	1.2.2010	
s 74(8) and (9)	deleted by 8/2009 s 10(5)	1.2.2010	
s 74(10)	substituted by 95/1995 s 9(b)	7.12.1997	
	deleted by 8/2009 s 10(5)	1.2.2010	
s 74(10a)	inserted by 95/1995 s 9(b)	7.12.1997	
	deleted by 8/2009 s 10(5)	1.2.2010	
s 74(11)—(16)	deleted by 8/2009 s 10(5)	1.2.2010	
s 74(16a)	inserted by 17/2001 s 8	27.5.2002	
	deleted by 8/2009 s 10(5)	1.2.2010	
s 74(17)	amended by 95/1995 s 9(c), (d)	7.12.1997	
	deleted by 8/2009 s 10(5)	1.2.2010	
s 74(18)	amended by 13/2011 s 7	30.6.2011	
s 74(19)	substituted by 8/2003 s 7	15.12.2003	
	amended by 8/2009 s 10(6)	1.2.2010	
Pt 11			
s 75			
s 75(1) and (2)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 75(3)	amended by 34/1996 s 4 (Sch cl 18)	3.2.1997	
	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	substituted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 30	1.7.2013	
s 76			
s 76(1)	amended by 95/1995 s 10(a)	7.12.1997	
	amended by 81/2005 s 17(1), (2)	30.7.2006	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(2)	1.7.2013	
s 76(2)	amended by 81/2005 s 17(3), (4)	30.7.2006	
	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 76(3)	amended by 95/1995 s 10(b)	7.12.1997	
	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
	deleted by 81/2005 s 17(5)	30.7.2006	
s 78			
s 78(3)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 31(1), (2)	1.7.2013	
s 79			
s 79(1)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 32(1)	1.7.2013	
s 79(3)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 32(2), (3)	1.7.2013	
Pt 12			
s 80			
s 80(2)	substituted by 81/2000 s 19	25.1.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cll 3(1), 33(1)—(3)	1.7.2013	
	(f) deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 33(4)	1.7.2013	
	(g) deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 33(5)	1.7.2013	
	(h) deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 33(6)	1.7.2013	
	(j) deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 33(7)	1.7.2013	
s 80(3)	substituted by 51/2017 s 116	4.10.2018	
Pt 13			
heading	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 34	1.7.2013	
s 81	substituted by 45/1994 s 23	2.6.1994	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 35	1.7.2013	
s 82	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 36	1.7.2013	
Pt 14			
s 83			
s 83(1)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cll 3(1), 37	1.7.2013	
s 83(2)	amended by 45/1994 s 10	2.6.1994	
	amended by 81/2000 s 20	31.10.2001	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 83(3)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
 84			
s 84(1) and (2)	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 84(3)	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
s 85	amended by 79/2000 Sch cl (b)	2.1.2001	
s 86	deleted by 34/1996 s 4 (Sch cl 18)	3.2.1997	
	inserted by 23/2007 s 6	4.2.2008	
	deleted by 16/2013 s 48	17.6.2013	
s 87			
s 87(1)	amended by 23/2007 s 7	4.2.2008	
	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cll 3(1), 38	1.7.2013	
s 87(2)	amended by 17/2021 s 16	12.12.2022	
s 88	deleted by 37/2002 s 9	3.7.2003	
s 89			
s 89(1)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(1)	1.7.2013	
s 89(3)	substituted by 81/2000 s 21	25.1.2001	
s 89(4) and (5)	inserted by 81/2000 s 21	25.1.2001	
s 90			
s 90(1)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 39	1.7.2013	
s 90(2)	amended by 42/2009 s 5	12.4.2010	
s 90AA	inserted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 40	1.7.2013	
s 90A	inserted by 42/2009 s 6	12.4.2010	
s 90A(3)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 41(1)	1.7.2013	
s 90A(4)	deleted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 41(2)	1.7.2013	
s 91 before substitution by 21/2013			
s 91(1)	amended by 23/2007 s 8(1)	4.2.2008	
s 91(2)	amended by 23/2007 s 8(2)	4.2.2008	
	(ad) and (ae) deleted by 42/2009 s 7(1)	12.4.2010	
	amended by 42/2009 s 7(2)	12.4.2010	
s 91(7)	substituted by 79/2000 Sch cl (a)	2.1.2001	
s 91(8)	inserted by 34/1996 s 4 (Sch cl 18)	3.2.1997	
s 91	substituted by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 42	1.7.2013	
s 91(6)	inserted by 17/2021 s 17	12.12.2022	
Sch 1			
cl 1			
cl 1(1)	amended by 45/1994 s 24	2.6.1994	
Sch 1A	inserted by 8/2009 s 11	1.2.2010	
Pt 1			
cl 1			
registered nurse	deleted by 17/2021 s 18(1)	12.12.2022	
Pt 2			
heading	substituted by 63/2017 s 7(1)	22.2.2018	
cl 2	amended by 17/2021 s 18(2)—(5)	12.12.2022	
cl 3	deleted by 17/2021 s 18(6)	12.12.2022	
cl 6			
cl 6(2)	amended by 38/2017 Sch 1 Pt 2	20.3.2018	
	substituted by 17/2021 s 18(7)	12.12.2022	
cl 6(3)	amended by 17/2021 s 18(8)	12.12.2022	
cl 6(4)	amended by 21/2013 Sch 2 cl 3(2)	1.7.2013	
Pt 3			
cl 7	amended by 63/2017 s 7(2), (3)	22.2.2018	
	amended by 17/2021 s 18(9)	12.12.2022	
Pt 4			
cl 8			
cl 8(2)	amended by 17/2021 s 18(10)	12.12.2022	
Sch 2			
cl 1	omitted under Legislation Revision and Publication Act 2002	3.7.2003	
cl 2			
cl 2(4)—(8)	inserted by 45/1994 s 25	2.6.1994	
cl 3	inserted by 53/2005 s 4	17.11.2005	
Transitional etc provisions associated with Act or amendments
Statutes Amendment and Repeal (Common Expiation Scheme) Act 1996
5—Transitional provision
An Act repealed or amended by this Act will continue to apply (as in force immediately prior to the repeal or amendment coming into operation) to an expiation notice issued under the repealed or amended Act.
Harbors and Navigation (Miscellaneous) Amendment Act 2000
14—Transitional provision
	(1)	On the commencement of section 7 of this Act, the appointed members of the State Crewing Committee who held office immediately prior to that commencement vacate their offices so that appointments may be made to the Committee under the principal Act as amended by this Act.
	(2)	Subsection (1) does not derogate from section 16 of the Acts Interpretation Act 1915.
Statutes Amendment (Transport Portfolio) Act 2001
9—Transitional provision
An amendment to the principal Act effected by a provision of this Part does not apply in relation to an offence committed before the commencement of that provision.
Harbors and Navigation (Australian Builders Plate) Amendment Act 2007, Sch 1—Validation provision
	Part 9 Division 1A of the Harbors and Navigation Regulations 1994 has the same force and effect, and will be taken to always have had the same force and effect, as if made under the Harbors and Navigation Act 1993 as amended by section 8(2) of this Act.
Harbors and Navigation (Miscellaneous) Amendment Act 2009, Sch 1—Transitional provisions
1—Interpretation
In this Schedule—
Facilities Fund means the Fund established under section 90A of the Harbors and Navigation Act 1993 as inserted by this Act;
Recreational Boating Facilities Fund means the Fund established under Part 15 of the Harbors and Navigation Regulations 2009 as in force immediately before the commencement of this Act.
2—Funds
On the commencement of this Act, all money in the Recreational Boating Facilities Fund must be transferred into the Facilities Fund.
Marine Safety (Domestic Commercial Vessel) National Law (Application) Act 2013, Sch 2
43—Transitional provision
A certificate of competency of a class appropriate to operate a recreational vessel (a boat operator's licence) in force under the Harbors and Navigation Act 1993 immediately before the commencement of this Act, continues in force subject to that Act (as amended by this Act) as if it were a boat operator's licence issued under that Act (as amended by this Act).
Statutes Amendment (SACAT No 2) Act 2017, Pt 21
117—Transitional provisions
	(1)	A right to appeal to the Court of Marine Enquiry under section 28F of the principal Act in relation to a matter in existence (but not yet exercised) before the relevant day, will be exercised as if this Part had been in operation before the right arose, so that the relevant proceedings may be commenced instead before the Tribunal.
	(2)	A right to a review by the Court of Marine Enquiry under section 80(3) of the principal Act in relation to a matter in existence (but not yet exercised) before the relevant day, will be exercised as if this Part had been in operation before the right arose, so that the relevant proceedings may be commenced instead before the Tribunal.
	(3)	Nothing in this section affects any proceedings before the Court of Marine Enquiry commenced under the principal Act before the relevant day.
	(4)	In this section—
principal Act means the Harbors and Navigation Act 1993;
relevant day means the day on which this Part comes into operation;
Tribunal means the South Australian Civil and Administrative Tribunal established under the South Australian Civil and Administrative Tribunal Act 2013.
Historical versions
Reprint No 1—2.6.1994		
Reprint No 2—3.2.1997		
Reprint No 3—7.12.1997		
Reprint No 4—2.1.2001		
Reprint No 5—25.1.2001		
Reprint No 6—12.4.2001		
Reprint No 7—31.10.2001		
Reprint No 8—27.5.2002		
Reprint No 9—3.7.2003		
Reprint No 10—24.11.2003		
Reprint No 11—15.12.2003		
1.7.2005		
17.11.2005		
30.7.2006		
1.12.2007		
4.2.2008		
25.9.2008		
6.11.2008		
1.2.2010		
12.4.2010		
30.6.2011		
17.6.2013		
1.7.2013		
22.2.2018		
20.3.2018		
24.4.2018		
4.10.2018